GATE XL 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key

Even though I had planned to go skiing with my friends, I had to __________ at the last moment because of an injury. Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

1. Aback up
2. Bback of
3. Cback on
4. Dback out

The President, along with the Council of Ministers, ___________ to visit India next week. Select the most appropriate option to complete the above sentence.

1. Awish
2. Bwishes
3. Cwill wish
4. Dis wishing

An electricity utility company charges ₹ 7 per kWh (kilo watt-hour). If a 40-watt desk light is left on for 10 hours each night for 180 days, what would be the cost of energy consumption? If the desk light is on for 2 more hours each night for the 180 days, what would be the percentage-increase in the cost of energy consumption?

1. A₹ 604.8; 10%
2. B₹ 504; 20%
3. C₹ 604.8; 12%
4. D₹ 720; 15%

In the context of the given figure, which one of the following options correctly represents the entries in the blocks labelled (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv), respectively?

1. AQ, M, 12, and 8
2. BK, L, 10 and 14
3. CI, J, 10, and 8
4. DL, K, 12 and 8

A bag contains Violet (V), Yellow (Y), Red (R), and Green (G) balls. On counting them, the following results are obtained:

(i) The sum of Yellow balls and twice the number of Violet balls is 50.
(ii) The sum of Violet and Green balls is 50.
(iii) The sum of Yellow and Red balls is 50.
(iv) The sum of Violet and twice the number of Red balls is 50.

Which one of the following Pie charts correctly represents the balls in the bag?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

“His life was divided between the books, his friends, and long walks. A solitary man, he worked at all hours without much method, and probably courted his fatal illness in this way. To his own name there is not much to show; but such was his liberality that he was continually helping others, and fruits of his erudition are widely scattered, and have gone to increase many a comparative stranger’s reputation.” (From E.V. Lucas’s “A Funeral”) Based only on the information provided in the above passage, which one of the following statements is true?

1. AThe solitary man described in the passage is dead.
2. BStrangers helped create a grand reputation for the solitary man described in the passage.
3. CThe solitary man described in the passage found joy in scattering fruits.
4. DThe solitary man worked in a court where he fell ill.

For the clock shown in the figure, if

O^* = O Q S Z P R T, and
X^* = X Z P W Y O Q,

then which one among the given options is most appropriate for P^*?

1. AP U W R T V X
2. BP R T O Q S U
3. CP T V Q S U W
4. DP S U P R T V

Consider a five-digit number PQRST that has distinct digits P, Q, R, S, and T, and satisfies the following conditions:

P < Q
S > P > T
R < T

If integers 1 through 5 are used to construct such a number, the value of P is:

1. A1
2. B2
3. C3
4. D4

A business person buys potatoes of two different varieties P and Q, mixes them in a certain ratio and sells them at ₹ 192 per kg.

The cost of the variety P is ₹ 800 for 5 kg.
The cost of the variety Q is ₹ 800 for 4 kg.

If the person gets 8% profit, what is the P:Q ratio (by weight)?

1. A5:4
2. B3:4
3. C3:2
4. D1:1

Three villages P, Q, and R are located in such a way that the distance PQ = 13 km, QR = 14 km, and RP = 15 km, as shown in the figure. A straight road joins Q and R. It is proposed to connect P to this road QR by constructing another road. What is the minimum possible length (in km) of this connecting road?

Note: The figure shown is representative.

1. A10.5
2. B11.0
3. C12.0
4. D12.5

The rate of solvolysis for the following tertiary halides in 80% aqueous ethanol at 25 °C follows the order

1. AI < II < III
2. BII < III < I
3. CIII < II < I
4. DII < I < III

The CORRECT order of boiling points for the hydrogen halides is

1. AHF > HI > HBr > HCl
2. BHF > HCl > HBr > HI
3. CHI > HBr > HCl > HF
4. DHI > HF > HBr > HCl

The bond order in N₂²⁻ species is

1. A2
2. B2.5
3. C3
4. D3.5

The standard enthalpy of the reaction,

C (graphite) + H₂O (g) → CO (g) + H₂ (g) is found to be +131.3 kJ mol⁻¹ and the Δ_fH⁰ value for CO (g) is –110.5 kJ mol⁻¹.

The value of Δ_fH⁰ (in kJ mol⁻¹) for H₂O (g) is

(The standard enthalpies of formation of elements in their reference states are zero at all temperatures)

1. A+241.8
2. B0.0
3. C−241.8
4. D+20.8

The temperature dependence of reaction rates is generally given by the Arrhenius equation. A plot of ln k_r against 1/T is a straight line from which the pre-exponential factor ‘A’ and the activation energy ‘E_a’ can be determined.

The CORRECT option regarding this plot is

1. ASlope: −E_a/R; Intercept on the y-axis: ln A
2. BSlope: +E_a/2.303R; Intercept on the y-axis: A
3. CSlope: +E_a/R; Intercept on the y-axis: A
4. DSlope: −E_a/2.303R; Intercept on the y-axis: ln A

The isothermal expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from V_i to V_f at temperature, T occurs in two ways.

Path I: a reversible isothermal expansion;
Path II: free expansion against zero external pressure

The CORRECT option for the values of ΔU, q and w for Path I and Path II is

1. APath I: ΔU = 0, q > 0, w < 0; Path II: ΔU = 0, q = 0, w = 0
2. BPath I: ΔU = 0, q > 0, w < 0; Path II: ΔU > 0, q > 0, w = 0
3. CPath I: ΔU = 0, q < 0, w > 0; Path II: ΔU = 0, q > 0, w < 0
4. DPath I: ΔU = 0, q < 0, w > 0; Path II: ΔU < 0, q = 0, w = 0

The CORRECT statement(s) regarding the given molecules is(are)

1. ABoth I and II are achiral molecules.
2. BBoth II and III are chiral molecules.
3. CIV is a chiral molecule.
4. DBoth III and IV are chiral molecules.

The CORRECT statement(s) about [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻, [Ni(CO)₄] and [NiCl₄]²⁻ is(are)

(Given: Atomic number of Ni: 28)

1. ABoth [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ and [Ni(CO)₄] are square planar complexes.
2. B[Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is diamagnetic and [NiCl₄]²⁻ is paramagnetic.
3. CBoth [Ni(CO)₄] and [NiCl₄]²⁻ are paramagnetic.
4. D[Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is square planar and [NiCl₄]²⁻ is tetrahedral in shape.

Consider the two pK_a values of valine as 2.32 and 9.62. The isoelectric point (pI) of this amino acid is ______. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

A few species are given in Column I. Column II contains the hybrid orbitals used by the central atom of the species for bonding.

The CORRECT match for the species to their central atom hybridization is

(Given: Atomic numbers of B: 5; C: 6; O: 8; F: 9; P: 15; Cl: 17; I: 53)

1. Ai−d, ii−c, iii−b, iv−a
2. Bi−a, ii−d, iii−b, iv−c
3. Ci−d, ii−c, iii−a, iv−b
4. Di−d, ii−b, iii−c, iv−a

For product formation from only one type of reactant (e.g. A → product), the CORRECT match for the order of the reaction (given in Column I) with the half-life expression (given in Column II) is

([A]₀ is the initial concentration and k_r is the rate constant)

1. Ai−R, ii−P, iii−S
2. Bi−Q, ii−P, iii−R
3. Ci−S, ii−R, iii−Q
4. Di−Q, ii−P, iii−S

The CORRECT statement(s) for the given reactions is(are)

1. AP is formed as the major product in reaction I.
2. BP is formed as the major product in reaction II.
3. CQ is formed as the major product in reaction IV.
4. DR is formed as the major product in reaction III.

Addition of a few drops of concentrated HCl to an aqueous solution of CoCl₂ forms a dark blue complex X. The CORRECT statement(s) for this reaction is(are) (Given: Atomic number of Co: 27)

1. AX is a centrosymmetric complex.
2. BThe oxidation state of cobalt does not change in this reaction.
3. CThe number of unpaired electrons on cobalt in X and in CoCl₂ (aqueous solution) are the same.
4. DThe spin only magnetic moment value for X is 3.87 BM.

The CORRECT statement(s) regarding biomolecules is(are)

1. AThe N-terminal amino acid of a polypeptide can be identified by Edman’s reagent (phenyl isothiocyanate).
2. BL-Threonine has only one chiral center.
3. CCytosine is present both in RNA and DNA.
4. DA mixture of different amino acids can be separated by ion-exchange chromatography.

Energy of the transition from n_h = 4 to n_l = 2 for hydrogen atom is E × 10³ cm⁻¹.

Given: Rydberg constant for hydrogen: 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹.

Value of E is ______________. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

A non-volatile solute has a molecular weight of 180 g mol⁻¹. Assume that the solute does not associate or dissociate in water, and the boiling-point constant (ebullioscopic constant) of water is 0.51 K kg mol⁻¹.

The amount (in g) of solute added to 500 g of water to elevate the boiling point by 0.153 K is ______. (answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

The standard potentials (E⁰) for the Fe³⁺/Fe and Fe³⁺/Fe²⁺ couples are −0.04 V and +0.76 V, respectively.

Given: Faraday constant = 96500 C mol⁻¹.

The value for E⁰(Fe²⁺/Fe), in V, is ____________. (rounded off to two decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

Zinc is essential for the function of

1. Acarboxypeptidase A.
2. Bchlorophyll a.
3. Cmyoglobin.
4. Dvitamin B₁₂.

Which one of the following molecules captures CO₂ in the C₄ cycle?

1. A1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate
2. BOxaloacetate
3. CPhosphoenolpyruvate
4. DRibulose-1,5-bisphosphate

Which one of the following methods separates biomolecules based on their hydrodynamic volumes?

1. AAnion-exchange chromatography
2. BCation-exchange chromatography
3. CSize-exclusion chromatography
4. DThin-layer chromatography

Which one of the following restriction endonucleases is a blunt cutter?

1. ABamHI
2. BEcoRI
3. CHindIII
4. DEcoRV

Which one of the following DNA repair systems requires DNA glycosylases?

1. ABase-excision
2. BDirect
3. CMismatch
4. DNucleotide-excision

Which one of the following ion channels opens to repolarize the neuronal membrane when an action potential is generated?

1. ACa²⁺ channel
2. BH⁺ channel
3. CNa⁺ channel
4. DK⁺ channel

Which one of the following is the most sensitive immunoassay?

1. AImmunoelectrophoresis
2. BImmunofluorescence
3. CRadial immunodiffusion
4. DRadioimmunoassay

Which of the following statements about antibodies is/are correct?

1. ADifferent antibody classes have different effector functions.
2. BEach antibody chain consists of an amino-terminal constant region and a carboxy- terminal variable region.
3. CVariable domains harbour complementarity-determining regions.
4. DAll antibodies have same half-life.

Which one of the following molecules does NOT contain phosphoanhydride bond(s)?

1. AAdenosine diphosphate
2. BAdenosine triphosphate
3. CFructose-1,6-bisphosphate
4. DPyrophosphate

For an enzyme that follows Michaelis-Menten kinetics, a competitive inhibitor

1. Aincreases both K_m and V_max.
2. Bdecreases both K_m and V_max.
3. Cincreases K_m but does not affect V_max.
4. Ddecreases K_m but does not affect V_max.

Fӧrster Resonance Energy Transfer does NOT depend on the

1. Arelative orientation of donor and acceptor.
2. Bfluorescence quantum yield of acceptor.
3. Cdistance between donor and acceptor.
4. Doverlap between donor’s emission and acceptor’s absorption spectra.

Phospholipid vesicles prepared in 50 mM KCl were diluted in water. Based on this information, statements P and Q are made. P: The diluted vesicles will develop membrane potential. Q: There is a K⁺ concentration difference across the vesicular membrane. Which one of the following options is correct?

1. ABoth P and Q are true.
2. BP is true but Q is false.
3. CP is false but Q is true.
4. DBoth P and Q are false.

Peptide-binding cleft in MHC-I is formed by

1. Aα₁ and α₂ domains.
2. Bα₁ and α₃ domains.
3. Cα₁ domain and 𝛽₂-microglobulin.
4. Dα₂ domain and 𝛽₂-microglobulin.

Which of the following peptides do/does NOT absorb ultraviolet light above 250 nm wavelength?

1. AMQRTVWG
2. BYDEIGVL
3. CPLASNGK
4. DGSQTKRL

Which of the following is/are peptide hormone(s)?

1. ACalcitonin
2. BGlucagon
3. CSerotonin
4. DThyroxine

Which of the following is/are heteropolysaccharide(s)?

1. AChondroitin-4-sulfate
2. BChitin
3. CCellulose
4. DHeparin

The equilibrium dissociation constant of acetic acid is 1.74 × 10⁻⁵ M. The pK_a of acetic acid (rounded off to one decimal place) is _____ .

Type a number as your answer.

The DNA double helix measures 0.34 nm/bp. The diameter of a nucleosome core particle is 11 nm. If the ratio of wrapped DNA length to nucleosome diameter is 4.51, the length of DNA around the nucleosome (to the nearest integer) is _____ bp.

Type a number as your answer.

E. coli is grown exclusively in a medium containing ¹⁵NH₄Cl as the sole nitrogen source. Subsequently, the cells were shifted to a medium containing ¹⁴NH₄Cl. The molar ratio of hybrid DNA (¹⁵N-¹⁴N) to light DNA (¹⁴N-¹⁴N) after four generations (rounded off to two decimal places) will be _____ .

Type a number as your answer.

Correctly match the names of the plant taxonomists (Group I) with the titles of the books they authored (Group II).

1. AP-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
2. BP-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
3. CP-1; Q-2; R-4; S-3
4. DP-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3

Which one of the following mature cell types is live but usually lacks nucleus?

1. APhloem parenchyma
2. BPhloem companion
3. CPhloem sieve element
4. DPhloem-pole pericycle

Correctly match the carnivorous plants (Group I) with the organs (Group II) they modify to trap the prey.

1. AP-1; Q-2; R-3; S-1
2. BP-1; Q-1; R-1; S-1
3. CP-2; Q-2; R-2; S-2
4. DP-2; Q-4; R-1; S-1

Which one of the following commercially important carbohydrates is naturally produced only by the members of the plant kingdom?

1. ACellulose
2. BPectin
3. CChitin
4. DStarch

Which one of the following agents causes the necrotic ring spot disease in stone fruits?

1. AFungi
2. BBacteria
3. CVirus
4. DNematodes

Identify the correct statement(s) with respect to plant disease.

1. AHairy root disease in tobacco is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. BLoose smut of barley is caused by Ustilago nuda
3. CStem rust of grape is caused by Plasmopara viticola
4. DFire blight in pear is caused by Erwinia amylovora

Which of the following molecular approaches can be used to generate complete knock-out of a target gene in plants?

1. AHomologous recombination
2. BCRISPR-Cas9
3. CAntisense RNA technique
4. DActivation tagging

If an egg cell of a diploid plant species has 10 chromosomes, the expected number of chromosomes in a double trisomic somatic cell of this species would be _______________ (Answer in integer).

Type a number as your answer.

In the history of photosynthetic research, the empirical reaction of photosynthesis was first proposed for green plants (equation 1), followed by another reaction for purple sulfur bacteria (equation 2), leading to a generalized equation for photosynthesis (equation 3)

CO₂ + H₂O —(light)→ (CH₂O) + O₂ (equation 1)
CO₂ + 2H₂S —(light)→ (CH₂O) + H₂O + 2S (equation 2)
CO₂ + 2H₂A —(light)→ (CH₂O) + H₂O + 2A (equation 3)

where H₂A in equation 3 is a generalized electron donor.

Which one of the following statements is DISPROVEN by equation 3?

1. AThe source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is CO₂
2. BThe source of oxygen produced in photosynthesis in green plants is H₂O
3. CLight is essential in every form of photosynthesis
4. DGlucose is the end product in all forms of photosynthesis

Consider a diploid plant species where the cells in the epidermis (the outermost single cell layer) always divide in the anticlinal orientation. If one such cell within the central zone of the shoot apical meristem (SAM) spontaneously becomes tetraploid at the seedling stage, which one of the following cellular arrangements would be most likely observed if the meristem is examined at the adult stage?

1. AOnly one tetraploid cell in the epidermis
2. BMany tetraploid cells in the epidermis
3. CAll cells in the entire SAM tetraploid
4. DAll cells in the entire SAM diploid

Correctly match the photosynthetic pathways (Group I) with their first stable products (Group II) in respective plants (Group III)

1. AP-1-a; Q-3-b; R-3-c
2. BP-1-a; Q-2-b; R-3-c
3. CP-1-b; Q-3-a; R-2-c
4. DP-1-b; Q-2-c; R-2-a

The following table summarizes the flowering time behavior (days to flower) and the transcript levels in four genotypes of a plant species.

Which one of the following genetic pathways best explains the observations shown in the table?

1. AA gene activates B, which suppresses flowering transition
2. BA gene suppresses B, which promotes flowering transition
3. CB gene activates A, which suppresses flowering transition
4. DB gene suppresses A, which promotes flowering transition

Correctly match the economically important specialized metabolites (Group I) with their broad chemical classes (Group II).

1. AP-5; Q-3; R-2; S-4; T-1
2. BP-2; Q-4; R-3; S-1; T-5
3. CP-5; Q-3; R-4; S-2; T-1
4. DP-3; Q-5; R-4; S-2; T-1

Correctly match the following Arabidopsis genes (Group I) and the biological processes they primarily regulate (Group II).

1. AP-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
2. BP-1; Q-3; R-2; S-4
3. CP-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
4. DP-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

Correctly match the enzymes used as selectable markers (Group I) and the chemicals used for their selection (Group II).

1. AP-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
2. BP-1; Q-2; R-3; S-4
3. CP-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
4. DP-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2

Which of the following sequential reactions correctly represent(s) the flow of electrons from NADH to O₂ in plant mitochondrial electron transport chain?

1. ANADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Succinate dehydrogenase → Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c → Cytochrome c oxidase
2. BNADH dehydrogenase → Succinate dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Cytochrome c → Cytochrome bc1 → Cytochrome c oxidase
3. CNADH dehydrogenase → Ubiquinone → Alternative oxidase
4. DNADH dehydrogenase → Alternative oxidase → Ubiquinone

If rabbits are introduced in an isolated grassland for the first time, which of the following growth curves (shown using dashed line) is/are theoretically possible population dynamics over time?

1. AP
2. BQ
3. CR
4. DS

Which of the following reactions in plants is/are catalyzed by the malic enzymes?

1. AMalate + NAD⁺ → Pyruvate + CO₂ + NADH
2. BMalate + NAD⁺ → Oxaloacetate + NADH
3. CMalate → Fumarate
4. DMalate + NADP⁺ → Pyruvate + CO₂ + NADPH

In a genetic cross between a true-breeding tall parent bearing red flowers and a true-breeding dwarf parent bearing white flowers, only tall plants with red flowers are obtained in the F1 population. Considering these two traits segregate independently, if one tall individual is selected from the F2 population, the probability that it would be genotypically homozygous for plant height and make red flowers is __________ (Round off to two decimal places).

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following metabolites is associated with bacterial stringent response?

1. ACyclic di-GMP (CDG)
2. BGuanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp)
3. CCyclic-AMP (cAMP)
4. DCyclic-GMP (cGMP)

India is aiming to be free of tuberculosis by 2025. One of the key approaches for this program is DOTS. Which one of the following options is the full form of DOTS?

1. ADirectly observed therapy short-course
2. BDirectly observed tuberculosis short-course
3. CDistrict operated therapy system
4. DDirectly operated therapy short-course

Correctly match the bacterial type in Column I with their corresponding environmental niche in Column II.

1. AP – iii; Q – i; R – ii; S – v
2. BP – ii; Q – iii; R – i; S – v
3. CP – i; Q – iv; R – iii; S – v
4. DP – v; Q – iii; R – iv; S – i

Robert Koch used a meat-infused nutrient medium for which one of the following purposes?

1. ATo grow disease causing microorganisms.
2. BTo demonstrate presence of microorganisms in air.
3. CTo test the efficiency of sterilization approaches.
4. DTo demonstrate antimicrobial activity of soil isolates.

A penicillin sensitive Escherichia coli population is exposed to a lethal dose (200 µg/ml) of penicillin. Assuming density-independent mortality, which one of the following relationships would describe the number of surviving bacteria (N) over time (T)?

1. AExponential
2. BLinear
3. CSigmoidal
4. DParabolic

A bacterium obtains energy from a chemical source by the oxidation of reduced NO₂⁻, with CO₂ as the principal carbon source. Which one of the following nutritional groups does this bacterium belong to?

1. APhotoautotroph.
2. BPhotoheterotroph.
3. CChemoautotroph.
4. DChemoheterotroph.

The origin of the Escherichia coli chromosome on the genetic map is shown below.

Bidirectional replication is a feature of this system and both replication forks move at the same rate. Which one of the following sequences of replication of the genes is correct?

1. AABCDEFG
2. BAGBFCDE
3. CGAFBECD
4. DGAFEBCD

Which of the following sites is/are the location(s) of ATP generation through oxidative phosphorylation in Escherichia coli?

1. AInner membrane only
2. BOuter membrane only
3. CBoth outer membrane and inner membrane
4. DMesosome

The adaptive immune response in an animal involves the generation of antibodies against an invading bacterial pathogen. The following graph represents antibody titer levels in a mammal exposed twice to the pathogen.

Which one of the following options correctly pairs antibodies to peak I and peak II in the graph?

1. APeak I – IgG; Peak II – IgM
2. BPeak I – IgM; Peak II – IgG
3. CPeak I – IgE; Peak II – IgG
4. DPeak I – IgG; Peak II – IgG

Carl Woese established that short subunit rRNA sequences can be used to reveal evolutionary relationships between various organisms. Based on this, which one of the following options is the established phylogenetic arrangement of the three domains of life?

1. AI
2. BIV
3. CII
4. DIII

Correctly match the viruses listed in Column I with the nature of their corresponding genetic materials listed in Column II.

1. AP – i; Q – iv; R – iii; S – ii
2. BP – iv; Q – ii; R – i; S – iii
3. CP – i; Q – ii; R – iii; S – iv
4. DP – i; Q – iii; R – ii; S – iv

A culture of lac⁺ Escherichia coli is grown in a medium lacking lactose or any other β-galactoside. The response of the lac operon upon induction by lactose can be monitored by measuring the levels of lac mRNA, β-galactosidase enzyme and permease enzyme. Which one of the following profiles correctly captures the on-off response to lactose?

1. AP
2. BQ
3. CR
4. DS

Which option(s) correctly match(es) the structures in a bacterial cell (Column I) with their corresponding functions (Column II).

1. AP – i; Q – ii; R – iii; S – iv
2. BP – i; Q – iii; R – iii; S – iv
3. CP – i; Q – iv; R – ii; S – iii
4. DP – ii; Q – iv; R – i; S – iii

Which of the following statements regarding micro-organisms is/are correct?

1. AThe free-living bacterium Wolbachia is a human parasite.
2. BMyxococcus are a group of predatory bacteria.
3. CDictyostelium is a slime mold that aggregates to form social groups.
4. DActinomycetes in soil are involved in producing earthy odours.

Which of the following is/are example(s) of animal-microbe mutualism?

1. AHuman – Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. BDog – Rabies lyssavirus
3. CHuman – Lactobacillus plantarum
4. DCow – Ruminococcus albus

Which of the following reactions is/are catalyzed by aldolase?

1. ADihydroxyacetone phosphate + Glyceraldehye-3-phosphate → Fructose 1,6-biphosphate
2. BDihydroxyacetone phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-biphosphate
3. CDihydroxyacetone phosphate → Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
4. DGlyceraldehye-3-phosphate + Erythrose-4-phosphate → Sedoheptulose-1,7-biphosphate

Which option(s) correctly match(es) the Antibiotic with their corresponding Target?

1. AP – iv; Q – i; R – ii; S – iii
2. BP – ii; Q – iv; R – i; S – iii
3. CP – iv; Q – i; R – ii; T – iii
4. DP – iv; Q – iii; R – ii; T – i

The doubling time of Escherichia coli is 30 minutes in a culture medium containing glucose and yeast extract. Phage T7 has a life cycle of 20 minutes and a burst size of 200 phage per infected E. coli cell. Phage absorption is instantaneous and occurs at 1 multiplicity of infection (MOI). Bacteria infected with multiple or single phage give the same burst. 5000 plaque forming units of T7 phage are added to a culture of 2 × 10⁷ E. coli cells.

Assuming normal division, the E. coli culture will lyse completely by _____ full cycles of bacterial division. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

A polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based diagnosis test was performed on a bacterial sample targeting a specific gene. There are 3 copies of this gene in the bacterial genome. Prior to DNA extraction, the bacteria were incubated to allow one cycle of growth. 3072 amplicon copies were obtained after 9 cycles of the PCR. Assume 100% efficiency at each step. The initial bacterial count in the sample was _______. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following is a “brood parasite” ?

1. APigeon
2. BSparrow
3. CGoose
4. DCuckoo

During the development of a mammalian embryo, “yolk sac” is formed by which one of the following?

1. ASyncytiotrophoblast
2. BPrimitive endoderm (hypoblast)
3. CAmniotic ectoderm
4. DEmbryonic epiblast

The animals belonging to which one of the following phyla are characterized by “segmented body” ?

1. AAnnelida
2. BCnidaria
3. CEchinodermata
4. DPorifera

Which one of the following is a “post-zygotic” isolating mechanism of speciation?

1. ABehavioral isolation
2. BFertilization failure
3. CHybrid sterility
4. DSeasonal isolation

Desmosomes are

1. Aintermediate filament-based cell adhesion complexes.
2. Bprotein synthesizing macromolecular complexes.
3. Csubcellular organelles.
4. DDNA-protein complexes.

The “foramen of Panizza” is found in which one of the following groups of animals?

1. AFishes
2. BCrocodiles
3. CFrogs
4. DDolphins

Imagine a population of diploid species in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The population has two alleles for a gene which are ‘a’ and ‘A’. The number of individuals with ‘aa’ genotype in this population is 1 in 10000. The frequency of the allele ‘A’ in the population is ______ (up to two decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

A PCR was setup to amplify a 500 nucleotides-long DNA. The dNTPs in the reaction mixture were radiolabeled. The percentage (%) of radiolabeled single- stranded DNA after three cycles will be ______ (up to one decimal place)

Type a number as your answer.

Match the molecules in Column-I with their properties/functions mentioned in Column-II

1. AP−3 ; Q−2 ; R−4 ; S−5
2. BP−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−1
3. CP−2 ; Q−3 ; R−4; S−1
4. DP−5 ; Q−4 ; R−2 ; S−5

Match the following human diseases in Column-I with their causal organism in Column-II

1. AP−3 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−5
2. BP−1 ; Q−2 ; R−3 ; S−4
3. CP−2 ; Q−4 ; R−1 ; S−3
4. DP−2 ; Q−1 ; R−4 ; S−3

Match the molecules in Column-I with their correct property/function in Column-II

1. AP−4 ; Q−5 ; R−2 ; S−3
2. BP−5 ; Q−1 ; R−3 ; S−4
3. CP−4 ; Q−1 ; R−2 ; S−3
4. DP−1 ; Q−3 ; R−4 ; S−2

What would be the number of genotypes and phenotypes, respectively, from a cross between genotypes AaBBCcDd and AaBBCcDd ? Assume independent assortment and simple dominant-recessive relationship in each gene pair.

1. A8 and 4
2. B12 and 4
3. C27 and 8
4. D14 and 8

Nucleosomes are made up of DNA and histones. Histones undergo various kind of modifications by different groups of proteins. They are known as histone writers, readers and erasers. Which of the following is/are histone writer(s)?

1. AHistone acetyl transferases
2. BHistone methyl transferases
3. CHistone deacetylases
4. DDNA methyl transferases

The expression of a gene is regulated by a transcription factor. Which of the following techniques can be used to identify the region in its promoter where the transcription factor binds?

1. AS1 nuclease mapping
2. BChromatin immunoprecipitation followed by sequencing
3. CElectrophoretic mobility shift assay
4. DDNase I footprinting

Which of the following animals in India are included under “critically endangered” threat category as per the Red Data List of IUCN?

1. ANamdapha Flying Squirrel
2. BIndian Rhinoceros
3. CNicobar Shrew
4. DClouded Leopard

Which of the following statements in relation to cell movement during gastrulation in Sea urchin is/are correct?

1. ADelamination leads to the formation of endoderm
2. BIngression leads to the development of mesoderm
3. CInvolution leads to the development of ectoderm
4. DInvagination leads to the development of endoderm

Which of the following genetic disorders is/are caused by trinucleotide repeat expansions?

1. AHuntington’s disease
2. Bβ-thalassemia
3. CFragile X syndrome
4. DCystic fibrosis

The mother and the father of five children are carriers (heterozygous) of an autosomal recessive allele that causes cystic fibrosis. The probability of having exactly three normal children among five is ______ (up to two decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

An enzyme, which follows Michaelis-Menten equation, catalyzes the reaction A→B. When enzyme and substrate concentrations are 15 nM and 10 µM, respectively, the reaction velocity is 5 µM s⁻¹. If K_m for the substrate A is 5 µM, the kinetic efficiency of the enzyme will be _______ × 10⁶ M⁻¹ s⁻¹ (in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Which of the following contains the phytonutrient allicin?

1. AGrape
2. BCauliflower
3. CGarlic
4. DChilli

Which mold is responsible for the characteristic blue marbling in blue-veined cheese?

1. ARhizopus oryzae
2. BPenicillium roqueforti
3. CAspergillus niger
4. DPenicillium camemberti

Which genus of bacteria does NOT have cell wall?

1. ALactobacillus
2. BStaphylococcus
3. CMycoplasma
4. DEscherichia

Which of the following pigment does NOT have pro-vitamin A activity?

1. Aβ-Carotene
2. Bβ-Cryptoxanthin
3. CLycopene
4. Dα-Carotene

Identify the analysis that must be performed FIRST to judge ‘cleanliness’ of spice/herb powders.

1. AAcid-insoluble ash content
2. BPesticide residue levels
3. CVolatile oil content
4. DMycotoxin levels

If there is a delay in oil extraction after bran is separated from the brown rice, the quality of rice bran oil deteriorates. Identify the suitable CAUSE and EFFECT for the deterioration in oil quality.

1. ALipase activity; increase in FFA
2. BOil hydrolysis; decrease in FFA
3. CLipase activity; decrease in FFA
4. DBran stabilization; decrease in lipase activity

Among the following, which is/are the process(es) that lead to generation of new fats from existing ones?

1. ATransesterification
2. BDegumming
3. CHydrogenation
4. DWinterization

The true density and bulk density of wheat grains are 1280 kg/m³ and 740 kg/m³, respectively. The porosity of the grains is ____. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

Identify the gas composition (in percent) suitable for packaging cured meat under MAP conditions.

1. AO₂ = 0; CO₂ = 50; N₂ = 50
2. BO₂ = 50; CO₂ = 0; N₂ = 50
3. CO₂ = 0; CO₂ = 0; N₂ = 100
4. DO₂ = 50; CO₂ = 50; N₂ = 0

Which of the following sequence of events occurs during formation of egg-white gel?

Assume: P_N: Native protein; P_D: Denatured protein; P_A: Aggregated protein; P_G: Protein gel
→: forward reaction; ↔: reversible reaction; Δ: heating; ∇: cooling (the symbol written over an arrow is shown here after it)

1. AP_N ↔^Δ P_D ↔^∇ P_A ↔^∇ P_G
2. BP_N ↔^Δ P_D →^Δ P_A →^Δ P_G
3. CP_N ↔^Δ P_D →^∇ P_G
4. DP_N ↔^Δ P_A →^Δ P_G

In canning and retorting of foods, which of the following is the correct expression of Ball process time (B)? Assume: t_p = processor’s process time; t_c = come-up time

1. AB = t_p + 0.42 t_c
2. BB = t_p + 0.30 t_c
3. CB = t_p + 0.50 t_c
4. DB = t_p + 0.25 t_c

Which of the following is the most suitable flexible packaging laminate for dry fruits?

1. APET/LDPE
2. BPS/LDPE
3. CBOPP/LDPE
4. DNylon/LDPE

Identify the CORRECT sequence of operations for dressing of poultry.

1. ASlaughtering and bleeding → scalding → defeathering → eviscerating → chilling
2. BSlaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → scalding → eviscerating → chilling
3. CSlaughtering and bleeding → eviscerating → defeathering → scalding → chilling
4. DSlaughtering and bleeding → defeathering → eviscerating → scalding → chilling

Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE for a package of gamma- irradiated (7.5 kGy) whole chicken?

1. ANutritional quality of the product deteriorates after irradiation.
2. BSpores of C. botulinum can survive in the irradiated product.
3. C‘Radura’ symbol does not ensure safety of the irradiated product for consumption.
4. DEnergy needed for the irradiation process is much higher than that required for freezing of the product.

Match the following food products in Column I with their corresponding processes in Column II.

1. AP-2;Q-3;R-4;S-1
2. BP-3;Q-2;R-4;S-1
3. CP-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
4. DP-2;Q-3;R-1;S-4

Which of the following is/are inhibitor(s) of enzymatic browning in peeled potatoes?

1. ACitric acid
2. BEDTA
3. CMannitol
4. DAscorbic acid

Match the following enzymes in Column I with their applications in Column II.

1. AP-3;Q-1;R-2;S-4
2. BP-4;Q-2;R-1;S-3
3. CP-2;Q-4;R-1;S-3
4. DP-1;Q-2;R-3;S-4

The F₁₂₁ value of a known microorganism with Z value of 11 °C is 2.4 min for 99.9999% inactivation. For a 12D inactivation of the said microorganism at 143 °C, the F value (in min) is _____. (rounded off to 3 decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

In a typical grinding operation, 80% of the feed material passes through a sieve opening of 4.75 mm; whereas, 80% of the ground product passes through 0.5 mm opening. If the power required to grind 2 tonnes/h of the feed material is 3.8 kW, the work index of the material is _______. (rounded off to 2 decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.