GATE XL 2024 Question Paper with Answer Key

If ‘→’ denotes increasing order of intensity, then the meaning of the words [walk → jog → sprint] is analogous to [bothered → ________ → daunted]. Which one of the given options is appropriate to fill the blank?

1. Aphased
2. Bphrased
3. Cfazed
4. Dfused

Two wizards try to create a spell using all the four elements, water, air, fire, and earth. For this, they decide to mix all these elements in all possible orders. They also decide to work independently. After trying all possible combination of elements, they conclude that the spell does not work. How many attempts does each wizard make before coming to this conclusion, independently?

1. A24
2. B48
3. C16
4. D12

In an engineering college of 10,000 students, 1,500 like neither their core branches nor other branches. The number of students who like their core branches is 1/4^th of the number of students who like other branches. The number of students who like both their core and other branches is 500.

The number of students who like their core branches is

1. A1,800
2. B3,500
3. C1,600
4. D1,500

For positive non-zero real variables x and y, if

ln((x + y)/2) = ½[ln(x) + ln(y)]

then, the value of x/y + y/x is

1. A1
2. B1/2
3. C2
4. D4

In the sequence 6, 9, 14, x, 30, 41, a possible value of x is

1. A25
2. B21
3. C18
4. D20

Sequence the following sentences in a coherent passage.

P: This fortuitous geological event generated a colossal amount of energy and heat that resulted in the rocks rising to an average height of 4 km across the contact zone.
Q: Thus, the geophysicists tend to think of the Himalayas as an active geological event rather than as a static geological feature.
R: The natural process of the cooling of this massive edifice absorbed large quantities of atmospheric carbon dioxide, altering the earth’s atmosphere and making it better suited for life.
S: Many millennia ago, a breakaway chunk of bedrock from the Antarctic Plate collided with the massive Eurasian Plate.

1. AQPSR
2. BQSPR
3. CSPRQ
4. DSRPQ

A person sold two different items at the same price. He made 10% profit in one item, and 10% loss in the other item. In selling these two items, the person made a total of

1. A1% profit
2. B2% profit
3. C1% loss
4. D2% loss

The pie charts depict the shares of various power generation technologies in the total electricity generation of a country for the years 2007 and 2023.

The renewable sources of electricity generation consist of Hydro, Solar and Wind. Assuming that the total electricity generated remains the same from 2007 to 2023, what is the percentage increase in the share of the renewable sources of electricity generation over this period?

1. A25%
2. B50%
3. C77.5%
4. D62.5%

A cube is to be cut into 8 pieces of equal size and shape. Here, each cut should be straight and it should not stop till it reaches the other end of the cube. The minimum number of such cuts required is

1. A3
2. B4
3. C7
4. D8

In the 4 × 4 array shown below, each cell of the first three rows has either a cross (X) or a number.

The number in a cell represents the count of the immediate neighboring cells (left, right, top, bottom, diagonals) NOT having a cross (X). Given that the last row has no crosses (X), the sum of the four numbers to be filled in the last row is

1. A11
2. B10
3. C12
4. D9

The CORRECT order of electronegativity is

1. AAl > Si > P > S
2. BAl > S > Si > P
3. CS > Si > Al > P
4. DS > P > Si > Al

Which one of the following is the CORRECT representation of the variation of the Gibbs free energy (G) of a substance with temperature (T) at constant pressure?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Among the following, the structure representing histidine is

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

The CORRECT order of acidity of the following compounds is

1. AI > II > III
2. BII > III > I
3. CI > III > II
4. DIII > II > I

The molecules A and B are a pair of ____________.

1. Aenantiomers
2. Bdiastereomers
3. Cconformational isomers
4. Dconstitutional isomers

The CORRECT option(s) of Y for the following reaction is/are

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the shell with n = 2 is ________ (in integer). (Given: n = principal quantum number)

Type a number as your answer.

One mole of an ideal gas expands isothermally and reversibly to double its volume. If the expansion work done by the system is 1728.85 J, the temperature of the system is _____ K (rounded off to 2 decimal places). (Given: Gas constant, R = 8.314 J K^–1 mol^–1)

Type a number as your answer.

The initial rate of a reaction triples when the concentration of a reactant, A, is doubled. The order of the reaction with respect to A is _______ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Type a number as your answer.

Each of the following alkenes undergoes addition reaction with bromine. Under the same reaction conditions, the CORRECT trend in the reaction rates is

1. AI > II > III
2. BII > III > I
3. CI > III > II
4. DIII > II > I

An enzyme-catalyzed conversion of a substrate at 298 K proceeds by a Michaelis-Menten mechanism. The Lineweaver-Burk plot for the analysis of the experimental data has an intercept along the y-axis of 0.357 mmol^–1 dm³ s and a slope of 2.10 s. The CORRECT Michaelis constant for the reaction is ________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

1. A5.88 mmol dm^–3
2. B5.88 mmol dm^–3 s^–1
3. C2.80 mmol dm^–3
4. D2.80 mmol dm^–3 s^–1

Which one among the following structures is the most stable conformer of (Z)-pent-2-ene?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Upon addition of compound X to an aqueous AgNO₃ solution, a white precipitate appears instantly. Also, X does not exhibit geometrical isomerism.

The CORRECT option(s) for X is/are

1. A[Cr(OH₂)₄Cl₂]Cl
2. B[Cr(OH₂)₅Cl]Cl₂
3. C[Cr(OH₂)₆]Cl₃
4. D[Cr(OH₂)₃Cl₃]

The paramagnetic species among the following is/are

(Given: Atomic numbers of Cr = 24; Fe = 26; Ni = 28)

1. A[Fe(CN)₆]^3–
2. B[Ni(OH₂)₆]²⁺
3. C[Ni(CN)₄]^2–
4. D[Cr(CN)₆]^3–

The molecule(s) with non-zero dipole moment is/are

1. AN₂
2. BCO₂
3. CNO
4. DSO₂

The ionic product of water at 40 ℃ is 2.92 × 10^–14 M². The pH of water at 40 ℃ is ___________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).

Type a number as your answer.

Given the standard reduction potentials (E^⊖) for the half-cell reactions below, the standard Gibbs free energy of the dissolution of silver chloride in water, at 298 K, is _____________ J mol^–1 (rounded off to nearest integer).

(Given: Faraday constant, F = 96500 C mol^–1; J = C × V)

AgCl(s) + e⁻ → Ag(s) + Cl⁻(aq) ; E^⊖ = 0.22 V at 298 K
Ag⁺(aq) + e⁻ → Ag(s) ; E^⊖ = 0.80 V at 298 K

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following pairs of amino acids is NOT incorporated in a polypeptide chain?

1. A4-Hydroxyproline and γ-carboxyglutamate
2. Bγ-Carboxyglutamate and desmosine
3. COrnithine and citrulline
4. D4-Hydroxyproline and 5-hydroxylysine

Mammalian cells cultured at low temperature (25 to 30 °C) leads to an increased sterol content in the membrane. Elevated sterols in the membrane results in

1. Aan enhancement in membrane fluidity.
2. Bstabilization of membrane proteins.
3. Can increase in membrane permeability to water.
4. Da decrease in membrane fluidity.

Which one of the following metabolic intermediates is common to glycolysis, nucleotide synthesis and glycogen synthesis?

1. ACitrate
2. BOxaloacetate
3. CGlucose 6-phosphate
4. DGlycerol 3-phosphate

In mammals, hematopoietic stem cells that give rise to different types of blood cells are known as

1. Atotipotent stem cells.
2. Bpluripotent stem cells.
3. Cmyeloid progenitor cells.
4. Dlymphoid progenitor cells.

Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the addition of N-nucleotides during the rearrangement of the immunoglobulin heavy chain-encoding gene?

1. AAddition of N-nucleotides is template encoded.
2. BN-nucleotides are added by terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase.
3. CThe added N-nucleotides are common in V-D and D-J junction.
4. DN-nucleotides are added by the DNA polymerase II.

A newly identified viral protein contains one long α-helix spanning 60 amino acid residues. The number of main chain H-bonds formed in this helix is __________. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

In a lactic acid solution at pH 4.8, the concentrations of lactic acid and lactate are 0.01 M and 0.087 M, respectively. The calculated pKa of lactic acid is ________. (Round off to one decimal place)

Type a number as your answer.

If a 10 mM solution of a biomolecule in a cuvette of path length 10 mm absorbs 90% of the incident light at 280 nm, the molar extinction coefficient of the biomolecule at this wavelength is _____________ M^-1cm^-1. (Round off to two decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

Metabolic intermediates provide the backbone for the synthesis of amino acids. Match the metabolic intermediates listed in Column I with their corresponding amino acids given in Column II.

1. AP-ii; Q-i; R-v; S-iv
2. BP-iii; Q-ii; R-i; S-v
3. CP-iv; Q-iii; R-ii; S-v
4. DP-ii; Q-i; R-iv; S-v

Which one of the following is the correct match between the molecular properties listed in Column I and the corresponding biochemical separation methods in Column II?

1. AP-i; Q-ii; R-v; S-iii
2. BP-iii; Q-iv; R-ii; S-i
3. CP-iii; Q-iv; R-i; S-ii
4. DP-v; Q-iv; R-iii; S-ii

Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the electromotive force generated by electron transfer chain?

1. AIt is used for the synthesis of ATP.
2. BIt is not used for active transport process.
3. CIt includes a pH gradient component.
4. DIt does not include an electrical potential gradient component.

Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct regarding the transport and retention of proteins in different cell organelles?

1. AMannose 6-phosphate residues are involved in targeting proteins to lysosomes.
2. BTransport of proteins into the mitochondrial compartment is aided by positively charged amino acid residues at the N-terminus and internal hydrophobic segments.
3. CThe retention of protein in the ER lumen requires the KDEL sequence motif at the C-terminus.
4. DNuclear proteins are transported in an unfolded conformation and the nuclear localization signal sequence is subsequently cleaved by peptidases in the nucleoplasm.

Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) fluorescence spectroscopy?

1. AThe emission maxima (λmax) is independent of the excitation wavelength.
2. BThe emission maxima (λmax) depends on the concentration of a quencher.
3. CThe emission maxima (λmax) varies with solvent polarity.
4. DThe emission maxima (λmax) varies with temperature.

Which one or more of the following statements is/are correct in the processing of pre-mRNA in eukaryotes?

1. A3′ → 5′ exonuclease activity is involved in the conversion of pre-mRNA to mRNA.
2. B5′– capping and addition of 3′– poly A tail precedes splicing.
3. CSplicing of pre-mRNA occurs via transesterification reaction.
4. DAlternative splicing can yield different mRNA products from the same pre-mRNA.

Which one or more of the following statements correctly describe(s) the changes upon the addition of puromycin during eukaryotic translation?

1. APuromycin resembles aminoacyl end of the charged tRNA.
2. BPuromycin occupies the A site of the translating ribosomes.
3. CPuromycin occupies the P site of the translating ribosomes.
4. DPuromycin occupies the E site of the translating ribosomes.

Factor H, a complement regulatory protein in plasma, binds C3b and

1. Acompetes with factor B to displace Bb from convertase.
2. Binitiates the catabolism of C3b into inactivate products.
3. Cthen binds to C3bBb convertase.
4. Dacts as a cofactor for factor I.

In Michaelis-Menten’s equation, if [S] = 15 K_m, then the ratio v₀/V_max is __________. (Round off to three decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

A 5250 base-pair long plasmid with 10 negative supercoils would have a linking number of ____________, considering 10.5 base pairs per turn for B DNA. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

The spectrum of a protein obtained using electrospray ionization mass spectrometry (ESI-MS) is shown below. Two peaks, one at m/z = 2960.6 and the other at m/z = 3552.5, are marked. The mass of the protein associated with the m/z = 2960.6 peak is __________ Da. (Round off to two decimal places)

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following plant families does apple (Malus domestica) belong to?

1. ARosaceae
2. BRutaceae
3. CRubiaceae
4. DRanunculaceae

The collateral and open type of vascular bundle with endarch xylem strand is usually found in

1. Amonocot stem
2. Bdicot stem
3. Cmonocot root
4. Ddicot root

Which of the following tissue types is/are established during embryogenesis in wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana?

1. AShoot apical meristem
2. BRosette leaf primordium
3. CProcambium
4. DLateral root primordium

Which of the following plant natural products is/are cyanogenic glycoside(s)?

1. ALinustatin
2. BLimonene
3. CLuteolin
4. DLinamarin

Which of the following plant diseases is/are caused by nematode?

1. ACereal cyst of barley
2. BErgot of rye
3. CWart of potato
4. DEar-cockle of wheat

Which of the following selectable marker genes is/are used for herbicide tolerance during genetic transformation of plants?

1. Ahpt
2. Bbar
3. CnptII
4. Dpmi

Which of the following statements is/are CORRECT with reference to rubber production from plants?

1. APara rubber is produced from Hevea brasiliensis
2. BIndia rubber is produced from Ficus elastica
3. CPanama rubber is produced from Manihot glaziovii
4. DCeara rubber is produced from Castilla elastica

In Calvin-Benson cycle, to produce 1 molecule of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate by fixing 3 molecules of carbon dioxide, 9 molecules of ATP and ________ molecules (in integer) of NADPH are typically utilized.

Type a number as your answer.

In wild-type Arabidopsis thaliana, the four types of floral organs (sepal, petal, stamen, carpel) are arranged in concentric whorls from outside to inside. With reference to the ABC model of floral organ patterning, match the homeotic mutants in Group 1 with their respective arrangements of organs in the four whorls given in Group 2.

1. AP–iv, Q–ii, R–i
2. BP–iii, Q–i, R–ii
3. CP–ii, Q–i, R–iii
4. DP–iii, Q–i, R–iv

Match the inhibitors in Group 1 with their respective targets in Group 2.

1. AP–i, Q–ii, R–iii, S–iv
2. BP–iv, Q–i, R–ii, S–iii
3. CP–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii
4. DP–iv, Q–ii, R–i, S–iii

With reference to Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated plant transformation, match the virulence factors in Group 1 with their protein types in Group 2.

1. AP–i, Q–ii, R–iv, S–iii
2. BP–iii, Q–i, R–ii, S–iv
3. CP–ii, Q–iv, R–i, S–iii
4. DP–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii

Match the plant products in Group 1 with the plant species in Group 2 that produce them and the respective plant parts in Group 3 where they accumulate the most.

1. AP–iii–b, Q–i–d, R–ii–a, S–v–c
2. BP–i–b, Q–iii–d, R–ii–a, S–iv–c
3. CP–iii–b, Q–i–d, R–ii–e, S–v–c
4. DP–iv–b, Q–i–d, R–iii–c, S–ii–a

Match the types of ecological interactions in Group 1 with their respective definitions in Group 2.

1. AP–iii, Q–iv, R–i, S–ii
2. BP–ii, Q–i, R–iii, S–iv
3. CP–i, Q–iv, R–iii, S–ii
4. DP–iii, Q–i, R–iv, S–ii

Match the types of ecological energy productivity in Group 1 with their respective definitions in Group 2.

1. AP–iii, Q–ii, R–iv, S–i
2. BP–ii, Q–i, R–iii, S–iv
3. CP–ii, Q–i, R–iv, S–iii
4. DP–iv, Q–i, R–ii, S–iii

Which of the following combinations of plant diseases and the types of their causal organisms is/are CORRECT?

1. ALate blight of potato – Bacteria
2. BBlack rot of crucifer – Bacteria
3. CTungro disease of rice – Mycoplasma
4. DRoot knot of tomato – Nematode

Identify the CORRECT combination(s) of plant natural products and the categories they belong to.

1. ADhurrin – Phenolic compounds
2. BFarnesene – Terpenoids
3. CNaringenin – Cyanogenic glycosides
4. DVincristine – Alkaloids

Identify the CORRECT combination(s) between the enzymes in Group 1 and the reactions in Group 2 they catalyze.

1. AS–iv
2. BQ–ii
3. CP–i
4. DR–iii

In a genetic cross between two pure-line parents differing in the two independently segregating traits, plant height (tall vs dwarf) and flower color (purple vs white), all the F1 plants were tall with purple flowers. In a testcross population involving these F1 individuals, the expected percentage (%) of dwarf plants with purple flower would be _______ (in integer).

Type a number as your answer.

The mRNA of a hypothetical plant gene HSDU is 800-nucleotide long and encodes a protein of 160 amino acid residues. The calculated length of HSDU CDS would be ________ nucleotides (in integer).

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following bacterial species can cause atypical pneumonia?

1. AChlamydia pneumoniae
2. BStreptococcus pneumoniae
3. CKlebsiella pneumoniae
4. DHaemophilus influenzae

Which one of the following organisms has axial filaments?

1. AMycobacterium tuberculosis
2. BPasteurella multocida
3. CTreponema pallidum
4. DShigella dysenteriae

Who among the following scientists was the pioneer in development of chemotherapy?

1. AElie Metchnikoff
2. BRobert Koch
3. CPaul Ehrlich
4. DRonald Ross

In which of following processes, glutaraldehyde is used as a sterilizing agent?

1. APasteurization
2. BIncineration
3. CCold sterilization
4. DAutoclaving

The most abundant class of immunoglobulins in serum is __________.

1. AIgM
2. BIgA
3. CIgD
4. DIgG

Which one of the following double-stranded sequences will NOT be recognized by a Type IIP restriction endonuclease?

1. A5′–GGTACC–3′
   3′–CCTAGG–5′
2. B5′–GGATCC–3′
   3′–CCTAGG–5′
3. C5′–CATATG–3′
   3′–GTATAC–5′
4. D5′–GATTTC–3′
   3′–CTAAAG–5′

Which one of the following use inorganic compounds as an energy source?

1. AHeterotrophs
2. BChemolithotrophs
3. CChemoorganotrophs
4. DPhotoheterotrophs

Which one of the following represents the abundance of the organisms found in soil?

1. AFungi > Aerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria
2. BAerobic bacteria > Fungi > Anaerobic bacteria
3. CAerobic bacteria > Anaerobic bacteria > Fungi
4. DAnaerobic bacteria > Aerobic bacteria > Fungi

Match the antibiotics in Group I with the microorganisms that produce them in Group II.

1. A(P)-(ii), (Q)-(iii), (R)-(i), (S)-(iv)
2. B(P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iv), (S)-(iii)
3. C(P)-(i), (Q)-(ii), (R)-(iii), (S)-(iv)
4. D(P)-(ii), (Q)-(iv), (R)-(i), (S)-(iii)

Which one of the following redox couples has the highest tendency to donate electrons?

1. AFumarate / succinate
2. BNAD⁺ / NADH
3. CFAD / FADH
4. DPyruvate / lactate

Which of the following is/are active transport mechanism(s) in prokaryotes where the substance is chemically altered during transport across the membrane?

1. AGroup translocation
2. BSimple diffusion
3. CFacilitated diffusion
4. DOsmosis

Which of the following cocci is/are examples of division in one plane?

1. AStaphylococci
2. BStreptococci
3. CMicrococci
4. DDiplococci

Which of the following event(s) occur(s) during translation in prokaryotes?

1. AtRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 30s subunit of ribosome
2. BAnticodon of tRNA binding to the start codon of mRNA on the 50s subunit of ribosome
3. CThe ribosome continues to move along the mRNA to add new amino acids to the polypeptide
4. DThe polypeptide is released when the ribosome reaches the stop codon

Which of the following is/are consequence(s) of nitrous acid (HNO₂) mediated deamination?

1. ADeamination of cytosine, adenine and guanine
2. BGC-to-AT transitions
3. CAT- to- GC transitions
4. DAddition of alkyl group to the bases

At root nodules, which of the following C4 organic acid(s) is/are transported across the symbiosome membrane and into bacteroids?

1. ASuccinate
2. BPyruvate
3. CMalate
4. DFumarate

Which of the following is/are TRUE about the Escherichia coli chromosome?

1. AIt is typically bound by histones
2. BIt is circular in nature
3. CIt is found in the nucleoid
4. DIt contains multiple origins of replication

At t = 0, the bacterial cell number is 10,000 cells/mL. At t = 480 minutes, the cell number increased to 320,000 cells/mL. The mean generation time during this exponential growth period, rounded off to the nearest integer is ________ minutes.

Type a number as your answer.

A landfill sample was analyzed by dilution and plating techniques for viable bacterial count. When one gram of the landfill sample was diluted 1 x 10^-4 (w/v) it yielded 400 CFU. The viable bacterial count (in million, rounded off to the nearest integer) in one gram landfill sample is _______.

Type a number as your answer.

A fluorescence microscope with an objective lens of numerical aperture (NA) 1.5 is used with light of wavelength (λ) 600 nanometers. The lateral resolution limit of this microscope rounded off to the nearest integer, is _________ nanometers.

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following statements about gene expression is INCORRECT?

1. ADNA is transcribed to mRNA.
2. BmRNA can be reverse-transcribed to DNA.
3. CmRNA can be translated to protein.
4. DProtein can be reverse-translated to mRNA.

Which one of the following tissues/organs is least likely to experience graft rejection when transplanted from a person to an unrelated person?

1. Abone marrow
2. Bcornea
3. Cheart
4. Dkidney

Codon bias is correlated with the relative frequencies of which one of the following types of RNA?

1. AmRNA
2. BrRNA
3. CsiRNA
4. DtRNA

CREB1 is a eukaryotic transcription factor. In which one of the following compartments of the cell is CREB1 predominantly localized?

1. Alysosomes
2. Bmitochondria
3. Cnucleus
4. Dperoxisomes

In certain species of salamanders, male-female pairs have multiple mating partners in a breeding season. Which one of the following terminologies accurately describes this mating system?

1. Amonogamy
2. Bpolyandry
3. Cpolygyny
4. Dpolygynandry

Which one of the following statements describes the key function of human sweat glands?

1. AThey serve as touch sensors.
2. BThey are responsible for skin color.
3. CThey regulate body temperature.
4. DThey store fat.

Urease enzyme catalyzes the conversion of urea into ammonia and carbon dioxide. Which one of the following organisms expresses urease enzyme?

1. ACaenorhabditis elegans
2. BDrosophila melanogaster
3. CHelicobacter pylori
4. DHomo sapiens

The human genetic code is triplet in nature with 64 codons made using four nucleotides. If the human genetic code was doublet in nature, the number of codons theoretically possible from four nucleotides is ______. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following statements is NOT TRUE of glycosaminoglycans?

1. AGlycosaminoglycans are composed of repeating disaccharide units.
2. BGlycosaminoglycans consist of amino sugars that are frequently sulfated.
3. CHyaluronic acid is an example of a glycosaminoglycan.
4. DMethionine is the predominant amino acid to which glycosaminoglycan chains are conjugated to form proteoglycans.

Which one of the options correctly matches the human tissues/organs with their embryonic germ layers of origin?

1. AP-II, Q-I, R-III
2. BP-III, Q-I, R-II
3. CP-I, Q-II, R-III
4. DP-II, Q-III, R-I

Consider a large population of a finch species, where both small and big beak sizes are advantageous, and an intermediate beak size is maladaptive. Over a period of 10 years, which one of the following evolutionary processes is most likely to operate on the beak size of this finch population?

1. Adirectional selection
2. Bdisruptive selection
3. Cgenetic drift
4. Dstabilizing selection

When the blood glucose level of a healthy person is 100 mg/dL, which one of the following options is most likely to represent the level of glucose in the urine of that person?

1. A< 1 mg/dL
2. B10 mg/dL
3. C50 mg/dL
4. D100 mg/dL

Which one of the following rooted tree topologies best describes the primate phylogeny?

1. AI
2. BII
3. CIII
4. DIV

Consider a species of brightly colored beetle. Which one or more of the following observations suggest(s) that this species is aposematic?

1. ABoth male and female beetles are brightly colored.
2. BOnly male beetles are brightly colored.
3. COnly female beetles are brightly colored.
4. DThe beetle species is toxic and distasteful.

The embryos of which one or more of the following animals show meroblastic cleavage?

1. ADanio rerio (zebrafish)
2. BGallus gallus (chicken)
3. CSynapta digita (sea cucumber)
4. DXenopus laevis (frog)

Which one or more of the following parasites is/are typically transmitted by mosquitoes as vector?

1. ALeishmania donovani
2. BPlasmodium vivax
3. CWuchereria bancrofti
4. DTrichuris trichiura

Consider the following nucleotide sequence:

5′-GCCGCCAUGGCGUCUGCUAGCUGGCUCGAUCGCGAGCGAUCGUACGUAUAGUAUGAA-3′

Assume canonical initiation, canonical termination, no post-translational modification, and the average molecular mass of an amino acid to be 110 daltons. The theoretical molecular mass of the polypeptide translated from the above nucleotide sequence is _____ daltons. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

The pKa of a buffer solution with pH of 5, consisting of 0.4 M sodium acetate and 0.04 M acetic acid, is ______. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Consider a healthy person with the following lung volumes:

Residual volume = 900 mL
Expiratory reserve volume = 800 mL
Tidal volume = 200 mL

If the Total lung capacity is 5500 mL, then the Inspiratory reserve volume of the person is _____ mL. (Answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Which one of the following fungi produces aflatoxins?

1. AAspergillus niger
2. BFusarium verticillioides
3. CAspergillus flavus
4. DRhizopus oligosporus

Under standard conditions in animal feeding studies, the weight gained (in grams) per gram of protein consumed by an animal is termed as

1. ANet Protein Ratio
2. BNet Protein Utilization
3. CCoefficient of Protein Digestibility
4. DProtein Efficiency Ratio

Xeropthalmia is caused due to the deficiency of

1. AThiamin
2. BPantothenic acid
3. CVitamin A
4. DVitamin C

Which one of the following steps is used to remove phosphatides from crude oil in the refining process?

1. ANeutralization
2. BBleaching
3. CDegumming
4. DDeodorization

The unique flavor of chocolate and cocoa is due to the formation of

1. A5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal
2. BCyclotene
3. CFuraneol
4. DMaltol

Which one of the following statements regarding Hazard Analysis Critical Control Point (HACCP) plan is NOT correct?

1. AHACCP is a management tool for ensuring food safety.
2. BHACCP involves five preliminary steps and seven principles.
3. CHACCP is not effective without prior implementation of prerequisite programs.
4. DHACCP plan involves establishment of corrective actions as second principle.

The product of cabbage fermentation by Leuconostoc mesenteroides is

1. ATempeh
2. BNatto
3. CSauerkraut
4. DMiso

Which one of the following absorbents is NOT used as an ethylene absorber in active packaging of fruits and vegetables?

1. APotassium permanganate
2. BActivated carbon
3. CCalcium hydroxide
4. DSilica gel

Which one of the following statements regarding moisture sorption isotherms of a dried food is NOT correct?

1. AAt a given temperature, the difference between adsorption and desorption moisture isotherms is known as hysteresis.
2. BAt a given temperature and water activity, an adsorption isotherm exhibits higher equilibrium moisture content than a desorption isotherm in hysteresis.
3. CAt a given moisture content, effect of temperature on a moisture sorption isotherm follows the Clausius- Clapeyron equation.
4. DThe Guggenheim-Anderson-de Boer (GAB) equation is a multilayer moisture sorption model.

Processing of fluid milk at 72 ℃ for 15 seconds is termed as

1. AHigh-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization
2. BLow-temperature, long-time (LTLT) pasteurization
3. CUltra high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization
4. DHomogenization process

Match the anti-nutritional factor in Column I with their corresponding activity given in Column II.

1. AP-4,Q-1, R-2,S-3
2. BP-3,Q-1, R-2,S-4
3. CP-2,Q-1, R-4,S-3
4. DP-1,Q-2, R-3,S-4

Which of the following fatty acids is/are known to increase the low density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol?

1. AOmega-3 Fatty acids
2. BTrans Fatty acids
3. CConjugated Linoleic acids
4. DSaturated Fatty acids

The addition of which of the following to high-methoxyl pectin will result in gel formation?

1. ACalcium ions
2. BHydrogen ions
3. CSodium ions
4. DSugar

Which of the following steps in food processing is/are used to reduce the acrylamide formation in food products?

1. APretreatment using asparaginase
2. BLowering the pH
3. CIncreasing the temperature.
4. DAdding glucose.

Which of the following enzymes is/are used for the production of high fructose syrup (HFS) from corn starch?

1. Aα-Amylase
2. Bβ-Amylase
3. CXylose isomerase
4. DGlucoamylase

Which of the following is/are typical characteristic(s) of a fungal cell?

1. APresence of histone proteins
2. BPresence of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
3. CPresence of chitin in the cell wall
4. DPresence of pseudomurein in the cell wall

Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding food and water borne disease and the class of causative microorganisms?

1. ALegionellosis is a bacterial disease.
2. BGiardiasis is caused by the protists.
3. CTyphoid fever is caused by the virus.
4. DListeriosis is a fungal disease.

Which of the following statements is/ are true?

1. AHagen-Poiseuille’s law is used for calculation of molecular diffusion.
2. BFick’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
3. CRittinger’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
4. DStokes law is used for derivation of terminal velocity.

A 10 kg tomato pulp is concentrated from an initial moisture content of 90% (wet weight basis) to 35% (wet weight basis). The weight of the concentrate in kg is __________ (round off to 2 decimal places).

Type a number as your answer.