IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 Question Paper with Answer Key

IIT JAM Biotechnology 2025 question paper with answer key: all 60 questions

All 60 questions from the IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology (BT) paper, typed out in full, with the answer key and every diagram: Section A (MCQ), Section B (MSQ) and Section C (numerical answer).

60questions, all compulsory
100marks, 3 hours
42Biology questions
4diagrams, as set in the exam

IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology was organised by IIT Delhi. The paper has three sections by question type and four subjects: 42 Biology, 8 Chemistry, 5 Physics and 5 Mathematics questions. Every question is below in the order it was set, tagged with its topic. Tap Show answer under any question to check the answer.

How to use this pageTry each question before you open its answer. Answers are from IIT Delhi’s final answer key. For MSQ questions every correct option must be chosen; numerical answers are accepted anywhere in the official range.
Take it as a timed examThe same paper is available as a free, timed test with JAM marking and an instant score: IIT JAM BT 2025 in live exam mode (log in to save your score).
Want full-length practice?The IIT JAM-BT Full Test Series gives you full-length mocks on the JAM pattern, with MCQ, MSQ and numerical questions and JAM marking. See the IIT JAM-BT Full Test Series.

Marking scheme

SectionQuestionsMarks eachWrong answerMax marks
A: MCQ (one correct option)Q1–30 (10 × 1 mark, 20 × 2 marks)1 or 2−1/3 or −2/350
B: MSQ (one or more correct)Q31–402No negative marking20
C: Numerical answerQ41–60 (10 × 1 mark, 10 × 2 marks)1 or 2No negative marking30
Total60100
Negative markingOnly Section A (MCQ) is penalised: a wrong 1-mark MCQ loses 1/3 mark and a wrong 2-mark MCQ loses 2/3 mark. MSQ gives marks only if you choose every correct option and no wrong one, with no partial credit.

Which topics this paper tested

We tagged every question with its subject and topic. Biology carried 42 of the 60 questions; within it, Molecular Biology and Microbiology had the most. The charts below cover all four subjects.

SubjectQuestionsMarks
Biology4271
Chemistry813
Physics58
Mathematics58
Total60100

Biology

IIT JAM BT 2025, Biology: questions by unit
42 Biology questions, tagged by Lesson Basket.
Molecular Biology16.7%
Microbiology14.3%
Genetics9.5%
System Physiology – Animal9.5%
Ecological Principles9.5%
Methods in Biology7.1%
Cell Biology7.1%
Metabolism7.1%
Biomolecules4.8%
Evolution and Behaviour4.8%
Diversity of Life Forms2.4%
Immunology2.4%
System Physiology – Plant2.4%
Developmental Biology2.4%
Topic tags: Lesson Basket. For Biology across four papers, see our JAM-BT weightage analysis.

Chemistry

IIT JAM BT 2025, Chemistry: questions by topic
8 Chemistry questions, tagged by Lesson Basket.
Atomic Structure & Periodicity25%
Thermodynamics & Equilibrium12.5%
Reaction Mechanisms12.5%
Stereochemistry12.5%
Electrochemistry12.5%
Acids, Bases & Buffers12.5%
Chemical Kinetics12.5%
Topic tags: Lesson Basket. For Biology across four papers, see our JAM-BT weightage analysis.

Physics

IIT JAM BT 2025, Physics: questions by topic
5 Physics questions, tagged by Lesson Basket.
Electricity & Magnetism40%
Mechanics40%
Optics20%
Topic tags: Lesson Basket. For Biology across four papers, see our JAM-BT weightage analysis.

Mathematics

IIT JAM BT 2025, Mathematics: questions by topic
5 Mathematics questions, tagged by Lesson Basket.
Differential Calculus40%
Matrices & Determinants20%
Integral Calculus20%
Algebra20%
Topic tags: Lesson Basket. For Biology across four papers, see our JAM-BT weightage analysis.

Jump to a question

Section A: Multiple choice (one correct option) (Q1–30)

30 questions (10 of 1 mark, 20 of 2 marks). A wrong answer loses 1/3 or 2/3 of the marks.

Q1BiomoleculesSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

The porphyrin ring (tetrapyrrole structure) is NOT found in functional

  1. Achlorophyll
  2. Bhemoglobin
  3. Chemocyanin
  4. Dleghemoglobin
Show answer
Answer: (C) hemocyanin
Q2Mathematics: Matrices & DeterminantsSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

If P is the matrix below and P + PT = I, the value of α (0 ≤ α ≤ π/2) is

JAM BT 2025 Q2 figure: If P is the matrix below and P + P T = I, the value of α (0 ≤ α ≤ π/2) is
  1. AÏ€/2
  2. BÏ€/3
  3. C3Ï€/2
  4. D0
Show answer
Answer: (B) π/3
Q3Methods in BiologySection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

After how many cycles of polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the amplified product of required length is generated for the first time from a chromosomal DNA template?

  1. A2
  2. B3
  3. C4
  4. D5
Show answer
Answer: (B) 3
Q4GeneticsSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

In humans, Down syndrome is caused by

  1. ATrisomy 16
  2. BTrisomy 18
  3. CTrisomy 21
  4. DTrisomy 22
Show answer
Answer: (C) Trisomy 21
Q5System Physiology – AnimalSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

Which one of the following hormones is produced by the adrenal gland?

  1. AThyroxine
  2. BCortisol
  3. CInsulin
  4. DMelatonin
Show answer
Answer: (B) Cortisol
Q6Diversity of Life FormsSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

What is the ploidy level of a sporophyte in angiosperms?

  1. An
  2. B2n
  3. C3n
  4. D4n
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2n
Q7BiomoleculesSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

The standard free energy change (ΔG°) of the binding reaction between different sweet molecules and a common sweet taste receptor are given. Which amongst these molecules is the sweetest at the same molar concentration?

  1. ASucrose (−6.7 kcal mol−1)
  2. BSaccharin (−9.7 kcal mol−1)
  3. CAlitame (−11.1 kcal mol−1)
  4. DNeotame (−12.1 kcal mol−1)
Show answer
Answer: (D) Neotame (−12.1 kcal mol−1)
Q8Chemistry: Atomic Structure & PeriodicitySection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

The correct order of electronegativity of the given elements is

  1. AB > C > N > O > F
  2. BF > O > N > C > B
  3. CF > N > O > C > B
  4. DO > F > N > C > B
Show answer
Answer: (B) F > O > N > C > B
Q9Ecological PrinciplesSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

Which of the following terrestrial biomes has the highest animal diversity?

  1. ATropical forest
  2. BSavana
  3. CChaparral
  4. DTundra
Show answer
Answer: (A) Tropical forest
Q10Physics: Electricity & MagnetismSection A · MCQ · 1 mark, −1/3 for a wrong answer

An electric circuit with a resistor of constant resistance ‘R’ is maintained at a constant voltage ‘V’. Based on Ohm’s law, if the current ‘I’ through the circuit is doubled, the power ‘P’ dissipated across the resistor is

  1. AP/2
  2. BP
  3. C2P
  4. D4P
Show answer
Answer: (D) 4P
Q11Evolution and BehaviourSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Sequence comparison of which of the following genes is used as a measure of evolutionary divergence across bacterial species?

  1. ApbpG
  2. BslyD
  3. C16S rRNA
  4. D18S rRNA
Show answer
Answer: (C) 16S rRNA
Q12MicrobiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Which of the following activities is NOT possessed by the human immunodeficiency virus-1 reverse transcriptase?

  1. ASynthesis of DNA from RNA
  2. BSynthesis of DNA from DNA
  3. CDegradation of RNA strand of RNA: DNA hybrid
  4. DSynthesis of mRNA from DNA
Show answer
Answer: (D) Synthesis of mRNA from DNA
Q13Molecular BiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Bacterial cloning vectors and bacterial expression vectors are differentiated by the presence of

  1. Aantibiotic resistance gene cassette
  2. Borigin of replication
  3. Cpromoter and ribosome-binding site
  4. Dunique restriction sites
Show answer
Answer: (C) promoter and ribosome-binding site
Q14MicrobiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

The final stage of peptidoglycan (PG) biosynthesis is marked by PG cross-link formation and remodeling. Which of the following enzymes does NOT take part in these processes?

  1. ATransglycosidases
  2. BTranspeptidases
  3. CTransaminases
  4. DDD-carboxypeptidases
Show answer
Answer: (C) Transaminases
Q15MicrobiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

The first evidence of ‘gene transfer’ was demonstrated in 1928 by

  1. AJoshua Lederberg in Escherichia coli
  2. BFrederick Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae
  3. CJoshua Lederberg in bacteriophages
  4. DAlexander Fleming in Penicillium notetum
Show answer
Answer: (B) Frederick Griffith in Streptococcus pneumoniae
Q16Cell BiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Which of the following statements about eukaryotic asymmetric cell division is NOT correct?

  1. AChromosomes are unequally distributed in the daughter cells
  2. BChromosomes are equally distributed in the daughter cells
  3. CRNA and proteins are unequally distributed in the daughter cells
  4. DCytoplasmic contents are unequally distributed in the daughter cells
Show answer
Answer: (A) Chromosomes are unequally distributed in the daughter cells
Q17Cell BiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Which of the following represents the CORRECT order of events in the eukaryotic cell cycle?

  1. AG1 → S → G2 → M
  2. BS → G1 → M → G2
  3. CG1 → S → M → G2
  4. DS → G1 → G2 → M
Show answer
Answer: (A) G1 → S → G2 → M
Q18System Physiology – AnimalSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

The receptors for gamma amino butyric acid (GABA) in humans are

  1. Aligand gated chloride ion channels
  2. Bligand gated sodium ion channels
  3. Cligand gated potassium ion channels
  4. Dligand gated calcium ion channels
Show answer
Answer: (A) ligand gated chloride ion channels
Q19ImmunologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Which of the following cell types is infected by the human immunodeficiency virus-1?

  1. AT-helper lymphocytes
  2. BT-cytotoxic lymphocytes
  3. CPlasma cells
  4. DB-lymphocytes
Show answer
Answer: (A) T-helper lymphocytes
Q20Methods in BiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

The IR stretching frequency of the carbonyl (C=O) group of a typical saturated ketone is 1715 cm−1. The IR stretching frequencies for the carbonyl groups present in three different acetophenone (methyl phenyl ketone) derivatives are given. Match the molecules in Group I with their corresponding frequencies in Group II

Group IGroup II
(Frequency of C=O group (cm−1))
Pp-amino acetophenone11677
Qp-nitro acetophenone21700
Rp-methoxy acetophenone31684
  1. AP-1, Q-2, R-3
  2. BP-2, Q-3, R-1
  3. CP-3, Q-1, R-2
  4. DP-3, Q-2, R-1
Show answer
Answer: (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3
Q21Physics: Electricity & MagnetismSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Two charges 10 × 10−8 C and −6 × 10−8 C are located 16 cm apart. The point(s) on the line joining the two charges, where the net electric potential is zero, will be

[Take the potential at infinity to be zero]

  1. A10 cm and 40 cm away from the positive charge on the side of the negative charge
  2. B10 cm and 40 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge
  3. C10 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge
  4. D40 cm away from the negative charge on the side of the positive charge
Show answer
Answer: (A) 10 cm and 40 cm away from the positive charge on the side of the negative charge
Q22Ecological PrinciplesSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Match the pair of orgamisms in Group I with their community interaction pattern in Group II.

Group IGroup II
PCattle egrets – African buffalo1Competition
QLynx – Fox2Predation
RAcacia tree – Pugnacious ants3Commensalism
SLeopard – Antelope4Mutualism
  1. AP-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
  2. BP-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  3. CP-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
  4. DP-2, Q-3, R-1, S-4
Show answer
Answer: (A) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
Q23System Physiology – AnimalSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Match the animals in Group I with the major form of excreted nitrogen metabolite in Group II

Group IGroup II
PBony fishes1Urea
QLions2Uric acid
RBirds3Ammonia
  1. AP – 3, Q – 1, R – 2
  2. BP – 1, Q – 2, R – 3
  3. CP – 2, Q – 3, R – 1
  4. DP – 3, Q – 2, R – 1
Show answer
Answer: (A) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2
Q24Evolution and BehaviourSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Identify the taxa that constitute a paraphyletic group in the given phylogenetic tree?

JAM BT 2025 Q24 figure: Identify the taxa that constitute a paraphyletic group in the given phylogenetic tree?
  1. AA, B, C
  2. BD, E, F
  3. CB, C, D
  4. DC, D, E
Show answer
Answer: (B) D, E, F
Q25System Physiology – PlantSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Which of the following is the CORRECT combination of a synthetic auxin and a synthetic cytokinin?

  1. A2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA)
  2. B2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and 6-Benzylamino purine (BAP)
  3. C6-Benzylamino purine (BAP) and Zeatin
  4. DIndole-3-acetic acid (IAA) and Zeatin
Show answer
Answer: (B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid (2,4-D) and 6-Benzylamino purine (BAP)
Q26MicrobiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Mechanism of antibacterial action of polymyxins relies on the

  1. Ainhibition of 30S ribosomal subunit
  2. Bdisruption of peptidoglycan synthesis
  3. Cinhibition of DNA replication of bacteria
  4. Ddisruption of membrane architecture of bacteria
Show answer
Answer: (D) disruption of membrane architecture of bacteria
Q27Molecular BiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

The 5′ cap of eukaryotic mRNAs contains

  1. Aa modified guanine nucleotide
  2. Ba modified adenine nucleotide
  3. Ca modified cytosine nucleotide
  4. Da modified uracil nucleotide
Show answer
Answer: (A) a modified guanine nucleotide
Q28Molecular BiologySection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT about Agrobacterium tumefaciens-mediated plant transformation?

  1. AThe marker gene for the selection of plant transformant is located outside the T-DNA segment of the transformation plasmid
  2. BThe marker gene for the selection of bacterial transformant is located within the T-DNA segment of the transformation plasmid
  3. CTwo T-DNA border sequences (left and right) are essential to design a binary vector system
  4. DIn binary vector system, the vir genes and two T-DNA border sequences (left and right) are present in the same transformation plasmid
Show answer
Answer: (C) Two T-DNA border sequences (left and right) are essential to design a binary vector system
Q29Chemistry: Thermodynamics & EquilibriumSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Which of the following conditions is CORRECT for free expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condition? (q = heat, ΔT = temperature difference, w = work)

  1. Aq = 0, ΔT < 0, w ≠ 0
  2. Bq = 0, ΔT ≠ 0, w = 0
  3. Cq ≠ 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
  4. Dq = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
Show answer
Answer: (D) q = 0, ΔT = 0, w = 0
Q30Chemistry: Reaction MechanismsSection A · MCQ · 2 marks, −2/3 for a wrong answer

Four alkyl halides, MeBr, EtBr, i-PrBr and t-BuBr, undergo SN2 reactions in the presence of hydroxide ion to yield the corresponding alcohols and the halide ion. The CORRECT order of the alkyl halides based on the rates of reactions is

  1. AMeBr > EtBr > i-PrBr > t-BuBr
  2. Bt-BuBr > i-PrBr > EtBr > MeBr
  3. Ci-PrBr > t-BuBr > EtBr > MeBr
  4. DEtBr > i-PrBr > t-BuBr > MeBr
Show answer
Answer: (A) MeBr > EtBr > i-PrBr > t-BuBr
Section A done. Now test yourself under time
The IIT JAM-BT Full Test Series gives you full-length mocks on the JAM pattern, with MCQ, MSQ and numerical questions.

Section B: Multiple select (one or more correct) (Q31–40)

10 questions, 2 marks each. No negative marking.

Q31MicrobiologySection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about Deinococcus radiodurans?

  1. AIt has a cell wall consisting of several layers, including an outer membrane that lacks lipid A
  2. BPeptidoglycan in its cell wall has ornithine, in place of diaminopimelic acid, in the N-acetyl muramic acid cross-bridges
  3. CIt is a Gram-negative organism
  4. DIt can survive an exposure up to 15000 Gy of ionizing radiation
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) It has a cell wall consisting of several layers, including an outer membrane that lacks lipid A and (B) Peptidoglycan in its cell wall has ornithine, in place of diaminopimelic acid, in the N-acetyl muramic acid cross-bridges and (D) It can survive an exposure up to 15000 Gy of ionizing radiation
Q32Molecular BiologySection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT about ‘stringent response’ in bacteria?

  1. AIt is linked to reduced growth rate
  2. BGuanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) alone is sufficient to trigger the process
  3. CBoth guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) and guanosine pentaphosphate (pppGpp) are required to trigger the process
  4. DRelA and/or SpoT are/is involved in triggering the process
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) It is linked to reduced growth rate and (C) Both guanosine tetraphosphate (ppGpp) and guanosine pentaphosphate (pppGpp) are required to trigger the process and (D) RelA and/or SpoT are/is involved in triggering the process
Q33Methods in BiologySection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

The method(s) used to detect a DNA fragment of 150 base pairs is/are

  1. Aagarose gel electrophoresis
  2. Bnorthern blotting
  3. Cpolyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
  4. Dwestern blotting
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) agarose gel electrophoresis and (C) polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis
Q34Cell BiologySection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

The component(s) of the apoptosome is/are

  1. Acytochrome c
  2. Bprocaspase 9
  3. Ccaspase 3
  4. Dcaspase 8
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) cytochrome c and (B) procaspase 9
Q35Molecular BiologySection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT for lac repressor expressed from the lacI gene?

  1. AThe lac repressor is allosterically controlled and it binds to lac operator
  2. BThe gene lacI is in the ‘cis’ configuration with respect to lac operon
  3. CThe presence of glucose weakens the binding of lac repressor to lac operator
  4. DThe lac repressor regulates ‘in trans’ the expression of a gene cloned under the control of lac promoter
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) The lac repressor is allosterically controlled and it binds to lac operator and (B) The gene lacI is in the ‘cis’ configuration with respect to lac operon and (D) The lac repressor regulates ‘in trans’ the expression of a gene cloned under the control of lac promoter
Q36System Physiology – AnimalSection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

Which of the following condition(s) lead(s) to reduced affinity of O2 for human hemoglobin?

  1. AReduction of pH of blood plasma from pH 7.4 to 7.2
  2. BDecrease of partial pressure of CO2 in the lungs from 6 to 2 kPa
  3. CEnhancement of intracellular 2, 3-bis phosphoglycerate (BPG) level from 5 to 8 mM
  4. DIncrease in ambient CO level from 1 to 600 ppm
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) Reduction of pH of blood plasma from pH 7.4 to 7.2 and (C) Enhancement of intracellular 2, 3-bis phosphoglycerate (BPG) level from 5 to 8 mM and (D) Increase in ambient CO level from 1 to 600 ppm
Q37MetabolismSection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

Which of the following metabolite(s) accumulate(s) in the blood of a human adult consuming a ketogenic diet?

  1. AD-β-hydroxybutyrate
  2. BAcetoacetate
  3. CPyruvate
  4. DOxaloacetate
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) D-β-hydroxybutyrate and (B) Acetoacetate
Q38MetabolismSection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

In ‘Futile Cycle’ chemical energy is dissipated as heat due to two opposite biochemical reactions. Which of the following biochemical reaction(s) is/are a part of ‘Futile Cycle’?

  1. AGlucose ↔ Glucose-6-phosphate
  2. BFructose-6-phosphate ↔ Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
  3. CGlucose-6-phosphate ↔ Fructose-6-phosphate
  4. D1,3-bisphosphoglycerate ↔ 3-phosphoglycerate
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) Glucose ↔ Glucose-6-phosphate and (B) Fructose-6-phosphate ↔ Fructose-1,6-bisphosphate
Q39Developmental BiologySection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

Which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT in the classical ‘ABC model’ for genetic control of flower development?

  1. A‘Class A’ genes solely determine sepal identity
  2. B‘Class B’ genes solely determine petal identity
  3. C‘Class C’ genes solely determine stamen identity
  4. D‘Class C’ genes solely determine carpel identity
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) ‘Class A’ genes solely determine sepal identity and (D) ‘Class C’ genes solely determine carpel identity
Q40Chemistry: StereochemistrySection B · MSQ (one or more correct) · 2 marks, no negative marking

Which of the following is/are CORRECT for the two molecules shown?

JAM BT 2025 Q40 figure: Which of the following is/are CORRECT for the two molecules shown?
  1. AThey are stereoisomers
  2. BEach of them has two stereogenic centers
  3. CThey are mirror images of each other
  4. DThey are diastereoisomers
Show answer
Answer (select all of these): (A) They are stereoisomers and (B) Each of them has two stereogenic centers and (D) They are diastereoisomers

Section C: Numerical answer (Q41–60)

20 questions (10 of 1 mark, 10 of 2 marks). No negative marking.

Q41MetabolismSection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

Free energy change for transport of an uncharged solute across a membrane against a 1 × 103 fold concentration gradient at 25 °C is _____________ kJ mol−1. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

[R = 8.315 J mol−1 K−1]

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: any value from 16.90 to 17.50 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q42Ecological PrinciplesSection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

A forest has four different tree species (A, B, C and D) and their numbers are: A = 60; B = 20; C = 10 and D = 10.

The Shannon biodiversity index of the trees in this forest is ________________. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: any value from 1.05 to 1.15 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q43GeneticsSection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

In a plant species, the genotype DDEE is crossed with the genotype ddee; and the F1 is test crossed. Considering that the two genes are linked and 20 map unit (cM) apart in the chromosome, the percentage (%) of the test cross progeny with the genotype ddee is _______________. (answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: 40 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q44GeneticsSection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

In a farm animal breeding programme, the animal with the dominant A phenotype, the recessive b phenotype, the dominant D phenotype, and the recessive e phenotype are commercially important. The inheritance of these traits follows Mendelian laws. From the tetra-hybrid cross of two genotypes AaBbDdEe and AaBbDdEe, the expected frequency of offspring that will show all the above-mentioned desired phenotypes is __________________. (rounded off to 3 decimals)

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: any value from 0.031 to 0.039 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q45Chemistry: Atomic Structure & PeriodicitySection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

The wavelength of a photon emitted during a transition from n = 3 to n = 2 state in the H atom is _____________ nm. (answer in integer)

[Rydberg energy constant RH = 2.18 × 10−18 J; Planck constant h = 6.626 × 10−34 J s, c = 3 × 108 m s−1]

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: any value from 600 to 700 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q46Mathematics: Differential CalculusSection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

The limit of the function limx→2 ((2x2 + 2x − 12) / (x2 − 4)) is _____________. (rounded off to 1 decimal)

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: 2.5 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q47Physics: OpticsSection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

A candle is placed 18 cm in front of a concave mirror to generate a real, inverted and doubly magnified image. The radius of curvature of the concave mirror is ____________ cm. (answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: 24 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q48Chemistry: ElectrochemistrySection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

E0 value of a Daniell cell Zn|Zn2+(aq)||Cu2+(aq)|Cu is ___________ V. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

[E0Zn2+|Zn = −0.76 V; E0Cu2+|Cu = +0.34 V]

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: 1.10 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q49MicrobiologySection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

A population of bacterial cells grows from 10,000 to 100,000,000 cells in 6 hours. The generation time of the bacterial population is __________ min. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: any value from 27.00 to 27.50 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q50Ecological PrinciplesSection C · Numerical answer · 1 mark, no negative marking

In a sampling expedition near a peninsula, 180 dolphins from a large population of dolphins were captured and marked by tagging their dorsal fins. The tagged dolphins were then allowed to join back into the population. In a subsequent expedition, 42 dolphins were photographed from same large population. Among these, 7 dolphins contained the tags. Assuming that the population size remains the same and that tags were not lost, the estimated population size of dolphins in the peninsula is _____________. (answer in integer)

Type a number as your answer.

Show answer
Answer: any value from 1079 to 1081 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q51Mathematics: Integral CalculusSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

The area bounded by the curve y = sin x and the x axis between x = 0 and x = 3Ï€/2 is ___________ sq. units. (answer in integer)

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Answer: 3 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q52Mathematics: AlgebraSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

The number of 7 letter words (with or without meaning) starting with the letter B that can be formed using the letters of the word BIOLOGY is ________________. (answer in integer)

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Answer: 360 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q53Physics: MechanicsSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

Three particles A, B, C with masses of 100 g, 200 g, and 300 g, respectively, are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangular structure with a side length of 2 m. A is placed at the (0, 0) position and B is placed at (2, 0) position in a Cartesian coordinate system. Assume that ΔABC lies parallel to the base. The distance between the center of mass and position of the particle A is ______________ m. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

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Answer: any value from 1.40 to 1.50 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q54Physics: MechanicsSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

An insect weighing 5 g takes off vertically for a distance of 100 cm with a speed of 4 m s−1 by using its hind legs. Ignoring the resistance due to air, the magnitude of the average net force exerted by the hind legs during the take-off is _____________ N. (rounded off to 3 decimals)

[g = 9.8 m s−2]

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Answer: any value from 0.080 to 0.100 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q55Chemistry: Acids, Bases & BuffersSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

A buffer solution is composed of 0.1 M acetic acid and 0.15 M sodium acetate. The change in pH of 1 L buffer solution upon addition of 50 mL of 1.0 M NaOH is ______________. (rounded off to 2 decimals)

[Ka of acetic acid = 1.75 × 10−5]

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Answer: any value from 0.35 to 0.50 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q56Chemistry: Chemical KineticsSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

In a reaction A + B → C, the initial rate of formation of C at 25 °C was measured for different initial concentrations of A and B as given. The overall order of the reaction with respect to both A and B is ________. (answer in integer)

ExperimentInitial [A] (mol L−1)Initial [B] (mol L−1)Initial rate of formation of C (mol L−1 s−1)
10.40.30.078
20.80.30.312
30.40.60.156
40.80.60.624

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Answer: 3 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q57Molecular BiologySection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

A cDNA was synthesized from the mRNA of a eukaryotic gene. After cloning and sequence analysis, the double-stranded cDNA of 614 bp revealed 125 bp 5′-UTR and 120 bp 3′-UTR. The number of amino acids present in the polypeptide encoded by this gene is _____________. (answer in integer)

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Answer: 122 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q58GeneticsSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

A rare genetic disorder resulting from homozygosity for a recessive allele (r) occurs in 2 out of every 10,000 individuals in a population. Assuming that (i) the disorder is not lethal, (ii) the disorder does not impact reproductive success, (iii) no new mutations are introduced in the population, and (iv) the population follows Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, the percentage (%) of the carriers in the population that pass the r allele to offspring is _________. (rounded off to 1 decimal)

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Answer: any value from 2.5 to 3.0 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q59Molecular BiologySection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

The vector, shown in the figure, has promoter and RBS sequences in the 300 bp region between the restriction sites for enzymes X and Y. There are no other sites for X and Y in the vector. The promoter is directed towards the Y site. The insert containing only an ORF provides 3 fragments after digestion with both enzymes X and Y. The ORF is cloned in the correct orientation in the vector using the single restriction enzyme Y. The size of the largest fragment of the recombinant plasmid expressing the ORF upon digestion with enzyme X is ___________ bp. (answer in integer)

JAM BT 2025 Q59 figure: The vector, shown in the figure, has promoter and RBS sequences in the 300 bp region between the restriction s

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Answer: any value from 3399 to 3401 (numerical answer, as in the official key).
Q60Mathematics: Differential CalculusSection C · Numerical answer · 2 marks, no negative marking

The length of the edge of a variable cube is increasing at the rate of 25 cm s−1. If the initial length of the edge of the cube is 10 cm, the rate of increase of the surface area of the cube is _________ cm2 s−1. (answer in integer)

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Answer: 3000 (numerical answer, as in the official key).

Changes in the answer key

No question was dropped or given marks to all, and each question has the single answer shown.

How to revise from this paper

  1. Attempt it in one 3-hour sittingAll 60 questions are compulsory, as in the real exam. Check answers only at the end.
  2. Score it the JAM wayAdd 1 or 2 marks per correct answer and subtract 1/3 or 2/3 only for wrong MCQs. MSQ must be fully correct to score.
  3. Sort your mistakes by topicUse the topic tag on each question. Two or three misses in the same topic show where to revise first.
  4. Repeat with another yearTake a different year a week later and compare your topic-wise mistakes.

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Source: IIT JAM 2025 Biotechnology (BT) question paper, published by IIT Delhi; answers from IIT Delhi’s final answer key. Question text is reproduced for practice; any transcription error is ours, and the official documents are the authority.
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