GAT-B 2021 Question Paper with Answer Key

Which colligative property is used to determine the molar mass of proteins?

1. AOsmotic pressure
2. BElevation in boiling point
3. CRelative lowering of vapour pressure
4. DDepression in freezing point

The half-life (in seconds) of a first order reaction which takes 4 seconds for 30% completion is: (may use log₁₀7=0.845)

1. A6.65
2. B5.45
3. C8.95
4. D7.77

The total number of structural isomers of C₅H₁₁F is:

1. A6
2. B8
3. C10
4. D9

Which of the following represents the Heisenberg Uncertainty principle?

1. AΔx Δp_x ≥ h/4π
2. BΔx Δp_x ≤ h/4π
3. CΔx Δp_x = h/4π
4. DΔx Δp_x < h/4π

What is the formal charge in Sulphur of SO₃?

1. A-1
2. B-1/2
3. C+1
4. D0

“The solubility of a gas in a liquid (at constant temperature) is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with the liquid” is best described by:

1. ARaoult’s law
2. BDalton’s law
3. CBoyle’s law
4. DHenry’s law

The solubility of gases in liquids

1. AIncreases with the rise in temperature
2. BDecreases with the rise in temperature
3. CIncreases with lowering the temperature
4. DDecreases with lowering the temperature

In a first order reaction, a straight line is obtained when plotting

1. A[R] vs t
2. Bln[R] vs t
3. C1/[R] vs t
4. D1/ln[R] vs t

Which of the following conditions allow a reaction to be spontaneous? (ΔH° and ΔS° respectively)

1. AΔH° −, ΔS° +
2. BΔH° +, ΔS° −
3. CΔH° −, ΔS° −
4. DΔH° +, ΔS° +

Which of the following organohalogens contains the largest number of molecules?

1. A1g of CH₃Br
2. B1g of CH₂Br₂
3. C1g of CHBr₃
4. D1g of CBr₄

Which of following reactions has a positive entropy change (∆S^ο)?

1. AH₂O(l) → H₂O(s)
2. B2SO₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2SO₃(g)
3. CN₂(g) + 3H₂(g) → 2NH₃(g)
4. DCaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g)

The equation for the complete combustion of butane is

2C₄H₁₀ + 13O₂ → 8CO₂ + 10H₂O

What is the amount (in mole) of carbon dioxide formed by the complete combustion of three moles of n-butane?

1. A24
2. B12
3. C8
4. D4

In ethanol, C₂H₅OH, there are covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds and van der Waals’ forces. Which bonds or forces are broken when ethanol is vaporized?

1. AOnly hydrogen bonds
2. BHydrogen bonds and van der Waals’ forces
3. CCovalent bonds and van der Waals’ forces
4. DCovalent bonds and hydrogen bonds

Different structural information about glucose can be derived by reacting it with different reagents. Which of the following is correct?

1. AReaction with HI confirms the presence of carbonyl groups.
2. BAcetylation with acetic anhydride to confirm the presence of OH groups.
3. CReaction with bromine water to confirm a straight chain.
4. DOxidation with nitric acid to confirm the presence of secondary OH groups

The half life of a chemical reaction is 1386 seconds. The specific rate constant for the reaction is

1. A0.5 × 10⁻² s⁻¹
2. B0.5 × 10⁻³ s⁻¹
3. C0.5 × 10⁻⁴ s⁻¹
4. D0.5 × 10⁻⁵ s⁻¹

A positive charge +q is located at the center of mass of a cube, sphere and cylinder. The side of the cube is r units, radius of the sphere is r units, and the radius and length of the cylinder are r and 4r units, respectively. The total electric flux through the surface

1. Aof the cylinder is maximum
2. Bof the cube is maximum
3. Cof the sphere is maximum
4. Dof all three objects are equal

Electrical energy is transmitted over large distances at high alternating voltages because:

1. AFor a given power, there is a lower current, thus less power loss.
2. BFor a given power, there is a higher current, thus more efficient transmission.
3. CTransmission lines are better suited to carry high voltage.
4. DThe power stations generate power at high voltage and it is convenient to reduce the voltage at the receiving end using step-down transformer

A far away object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform speed of 5 m/s and stops at the focus. During this time the image on the right moves:

1. Aaway from the lens with an uniform speed of 5 m/s.
2. Baway from the lens with an uniform acceleration.
3. Caway from the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.
4. Dtowards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.

A vehicle travels half of the total distance (L) with speed V₁ and the other half with speed V₂, then its average speed over this whole distance is:

1. A(V₁+V₂)/2
2. B(2V₁+V₂)/(V₁+V₂)
3. C2V₁V₂/(V₁+V₂)
4. DL(V₁+V₂)/V₁V₂

A mass of 5 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If the mass moves with 300 revolutions per minute, its kinetic energy would be:

1. A250π²
2. B100π²
3. C5π²
4. D0

Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep meet at A from where two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track as shown in the figure below.

Which of the following statements is correct?

1. ABoth the stones reach the bottom at the same time and the same speed.
2. BBoth the stones reach the bottom with the same speed and stone I reaches the bottom earlier than stone II.
3. CBoth the stones reach the bottom with the same speed and stone II reaches the bottom earlier than stone I.
4. DBoth the stones reach the bottom at different times and with different speeds

Assume that the earth is a perfect sphere. If the interior of the earth contained matter which is not of the same density everywhere, then the acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth will:

1. Abe directed towards the centre but not the same everywhere.
2. Bhave the same value everywhere but not directed towards the centre.
3. Cbe same everywhere in magnitude directed towards the centre.
4. Dhave different values everywhere and not directed towards the centre.

A copper and a steel wire of the same diameter are connected end to end. A deforming force F is applied to this composite wire which causes a total elongation of 3 cm. The two wires will have

1. Athe same stress and different strain.
2. Bthe same strain and different stress.
3. Cthe same stress and same strain.
4. Ddifferent stress and different strain.

The equation describing acceleration (a) as a function of displacement (x) for four different particles is given below. Which one of these is executing simple harmonic motion?

1. Aa = +2x
2. Ba = +2x²
3. Ca = −2x²
4. Da = −2x

Light waves entering a medium with higher refractive index undergo

1. AChange in velocity and frequency but not wavelength
2. BChange in wavelength and frequency but not velocity
3. CChange in velocity and wavelength but not frequency
4. DChange in velocity, frequency and wavelength

A battery of emf 1.50 V and internal resistance 0.50 ohm supplies a current of 100 mA. The potential difference across the terminal of the battery will be ______V.

1. A1.5
2. B1.45
3. C1.55
4. D1

The position of a particle moving along the X-axis as a function of time t (in seconds) is given by X (in meters) = t³ − 9t + 2. The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle at t = 3 seconds is _____ m/s².

1. A56
2. B36
3. C18
4. D20

A solid cylinder and a hollow cylinder of the equal radius and mass start rolling down (without slipping) on a fixed inclined plane from rest at the same time at the same height from the ground. Which of the following statements is correct about the above?

1. ASolid cylinder reaches the ground earlier and with higher velocity than hollow cylinder
2. BBoth solid and hollow cylinders reach at the same time with same velocity
3. CSolid cylinder reaches ground at same time but with higher velocity than hollow cylinder
4. DHollow cylinder reaches ground earlier with higher velocity than solid cylinder

A metal ball weighs 50 g in air and 25 g when dipped in a liquid of density 1.25 g/cm³. The metal ball weighs _____ g when dipped in a liquid of density 1.2 g/cm³.

1. A24
2. B25
3. C26
4. D28

A radioactive material has a half life of 10 years. What fraction of radioactive nuclei will remain undecayed with respect to the initial sample after 20 years?

1. A1/2
2. B1/4
3. C1/8
4. D1/16

Which among the following organs is NOT capable of secreting hormones?

1. AOvary
2. BSalivary Gland
3. CThymus
4. DKidney

Choose the incorrect statement from the following.

1. AAUG is the initiator codon and also codes for methionine.
2. BUGA is a terminator codon.
3. CA codon is not always a triplet.
4. DGenetic code is universal from protozoa to human.

Match the components in List I with those in the List II.

1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. CA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-I
4. DA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Which one of the following is a membrane-less structure?

1. ACentrosome
2. BCytochrome
3. CEndosome
4. DPeroxisome

Which of the following statements about lipids is NOT true?

1. AGlycerol and fatty acids make up lipids
2. BLipids are water insoluble and some even contain phosphorus
3. CGlycerol is a highly complex lipid
4. DFats are different from oils in their melting point

Mendel’s discovery in pea plants may be considered incidental since the chosen traits were

1. Amostly tightly linked
2. Bonly completely dominant
3. Chighly epistatic
4. Dindependently assorted

Height of a human being is a typical example of which mode of inheritance?

1. APleiotropic Inheritance
2. BCytoplasmic Inheritance
3. CMulti-allelic Inheritance
4. DPolygenic Inheritance

Which of the following hormones attains the peak of expression in the middle of the menstrual cycle?

1. AEstrogen
2. BProgesterone
3. CLH
4. DFSH

Milk is secreted by the alveoli present in the mammary lobes and it reaches up to nipple through the following regions:

a. Lactiferous duct

b. Mammary duct

c. Ampulla

d. Mammary tubule

The correct order of the flow of milk is:

1. Ab → c → d → a
2. Bd → b → c → a
3. Cb → d → c → a
4. Da → b → d → c

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and another as Reason R.

Assertion A: Most humans pass accurate genetic instructions from one generation to the next.

Reason R: In spite of high mutation rate, the sequence of the human genome changes by only a few nucleotides during division.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options below.

1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. CA is true but R is false
4. DA is false but R is true

The respiratory pathway common to erythrocyte and leucocyte is

1. Aoxidation of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA
2. Boxidation of acetyl-CoA
3. Crelease of ATP by electron transport-linked phosphorylation
4. Dsubstrate level phosphorylation

Pick the most basic dipeptide from the following:

1. AGly-Glu
2. BGly-Lys
3. CGly-Arg
4. DGly-His

Which of the following features distinguishes myoglobin from hemoglobin?

1. APresence of heme prosthetic group
2. BAbility to bind to oxygen
3. CMolecular size and allostery
4. DHemoglobin is found only in humans

Match the components of List I with those in the List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. BA-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. CA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. DA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

Which of the following is NOT a plant hormone?

1. ABrassinosteroids
2. BCytokinin
3. CCytokine
4. DNitric oxide

What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will have 53 Sundays?

1. A7/53
2. B7/52
3. C2/7
4. D1/7

A bag contains 3 red, 6 white and 7 blue balls. What is the probability that 2 balls drawn are white and blue?

1. A1/120
2. B1/16
3. C13/16
4. D7/20

Which of the following equation describes a line passing through the point (-2, -3) and parallel to the x-axis?

1. Ay = -3
2. Bx = -2
3. Cy-x = 6
4. Dx-y = 6

In a school there are a total of 20 teachers who can teach mathematics or physics. Of these, 12 can teach mathematics and 4 can teach both physics and mathematics. How many can teach physics?

1. A16
2. B8
3. C12
4. D6

The cost of 5 oranges and 3 apples is Rs. 35 and the cost of 2 oranges and 4 apples is Rs. 28. What would be the cost of one each of orange and apple?

1. AOrange Rs. 4, Apple Rs. 5
2. BOrange Re. 1, Apple Rs. 10
3. COrange Rs. 2, Apple Rs. 4
4. DOrange Rs. 4, Apple Rs. 6

A 6.5 m ladder is placed against a wall such that its foot is at a distance of 2.5 m from the wall. The height it would reach on the wall is

1. A3.0 m
2. B4.0 m
3. C5.0 m
4. D6.0 m

A train travels 360 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 5 km/h more, it would have taken 1 h less for the journey. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train?

1. A40
2. B30
3. C20
4. D10

The highest score of a cricket player in an innings was 3/11^th of the total score and the next highest was 3/10^th of the remaining. If the difference between the two scores was 24 runs, what was the total score?

1. A390
2. B410
3. C420
4. D440

The ratio of the number of girls to the number of boys in a school of 720 students is 3:5. If 18 new boys are admitted in the school, find how many new girls may be admitted so that the ratio of number of girls to the number of boys may change to 2:3?

1. A21
2. B42
3. C84
4. D168

A and B together can do a piece of work in 20 days; B and C together can do it in 15 days, C and A together can do it in 12 days. How long will they take to finish the work, working together?

1. A6 days
2. B8 days
3. C10 days
4. D12 days

If a student cycles at 10 km/h, he reaches the school late by 4 minutes. If he cycles at 12 km/h, he reaches the school early by 2 minutes. What is the distance of the school from his home?

1. A4 km
2. B6 km
3. C7 km
4. D8 km

A boat covers a certain distance downstream in 3 hours and it covers the same distance upstream in 5 hours. What would be the speed of the stream if the speed of the boat in still water is 8 km/h?

1. A3 km/h
2. B2.5 km/h
3. C2 km/h
4. D1.5 km/h

What is the median of the data given below?

2, 2, 0, 4, 12, 10, 6, 8

1. A5
2. B4.5
3. C6
4. D5.5

The ratio of the area of a circle and a square having the same perimeter is

1. A4 : π
2. B2 : π
3. C2 : √π
4. D4 : π²

In an experiment, with increasing number of tosses of a coin the

1. ARatio of heads to tails approaches 1 and also the differential count between heads and tails declines.
2. BRatio of heads to tails approaches 1 while the differential count between heads and tails increases.
3. CThe ratio of heads to tails remains at 1.
4. DThe ratio of heads and tails oscillates around 1 while the differential count between them declines.

Eclipse period in a virus infection is defined as the time

1. Abefore virus binding to receptor
2. Bbetween virus binding and infection
3. Cbetween infection and appearance of mature virus
4. Dafter appearance of mature virus

The first virus to be discovered was

1. APolio virus
2. BYellow fever virus
3. CRabies virus
4. DTobacco mosaic virus

Which among the following enzymes enables integration of the retroviral genome into the host genome?

1. ADNA polymerase
2. BRNA polymerase
3. CReverse transcriptase
4. DCysteine protease

Several DNA viruses can cause latent infection by their ability to

1. Aremain outside the host as non-living particles
2. Bbind to a specific receptor
3. Cintegrate into the host genome, but not replicate
4. Dactively replicate and produce more virus

A virus- X requires endocytosis for infection and replicates in the cytosol. De-proteinized genome of the virus is non- infectious. X is a

1. ARetrovirus
2. BEnveloped plus-strand RNA virus
3. CBacteriophage
4. DEnveloped minus-strand RNA virus

Which one of the following vaccine was developed by Louis Pasteur?

1. AMeasles
2. BSmallpox
3. CInfluenza
4. DRabies

Here are four statements about Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC).

A. MHC-I is expressed by nearly all nucleated cells

B. MHC-II is expressed by antigen presenting cells and they present antigen to cytotoxic T cells

C. Only Helper T cells and not the cytotoxic T cells can recognize antigen in complex with MHC-II

D. Natural Killer cells express a variety of receptors that engage with MHC-II

Which of the above statement(s) is true?

1. Aonly B
2. BA and C
3. CA, B and C
4. DA, C and D

Papain digestion of an IgG predominantly results in the formation of

1. Atwo Fab fragments and one Fc fragment
2. Bone F(ab’)2 fragment and several small Fc fragments
3. Cone F(ab’)2 fragment and one Fc fragment
4. Dtwo Fab fragments and several small Fc fragments

Which one of the following statements about central memory T cells is true?

1. AThey reside in the secondary lymphoid organs
2. BThey exit the lymph node and circulate in the body
3. CThey settle in the peripheral tissue
4. DThey reside in the bone marrow

Which organ is used for isolation of activated B lymphocytes (plasma cells) for monoclonal antibody production?

1. ABone marrow
2. BSpleen
3. CLymph node
4. DLiver

PSSM stands for

1. APosition Specific Scanning Matrix
2. BPoint Specific Scoring Matrix
3. CPosition Specific Scoring Matrix
4. DPoint Specific Scanning Matrix

Which one of the following attribute of a macromolecule is modulated by Molecular dynamics simulations?

1. AStructure
2. BTemperature
3. CPressure
4. DAntigenicity

The only genetically encoded amino acid without a stereoisomer is

1. AAlanine
2. BTryptophan
3. CGlycine
4. DProline

Disulfide bonds are identified using the distance between the side-chains of which one of the following sulphur- containing residue pairs?

1. ACys and Met
2. BCys and Cys
3. CMet and Met
4. DMet and His

The two strands in double-helical DNA are held together by hydrogen bonds between

1. APhosphate and sugar group
2. BNitrogenous bases and sugar
3. CNitrogenous bases and phosphate
4. DNitrogenous bases

Which one of the following is a receptor for HIV-1?

1. ASialic acid
2. BCD4
3. CCD81
4. DClaudin-1

A student carried out expression analysis of a gene (PTEN) in a cancer cell line using both Northern blotting and Western blotting. He observed a decrease in the Western blotting signal but no change in the Northern blotting signal compared to a normal cell. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?

1. AThere is a decrease in PTEN protein level but there is no mutation on the PTEN DNA sequence in the cancer cell
2. BThere is a decrease in PTEN protein level but no change in the PTEN mRNA expression in the cancer cell
3. CThere is a decrease in PTEN mRNA expression but no change in the PTEN protein level in the cancer cell
4. DThere is a decrease in PTEN mRNA expression but no mutation on the PTEN DNA sequence in the cancer cell

Which one of the following DNA sequences can act as genetic markers?

1. AVariable number tandem repeat (VNTR)
2. BLong interspersed nuclear elements (LINEs)
3. CShort interspersed nuclear elements (SINEs)
4. DLong terminal repeats (LTRs)

Which of the following is NOT a genetic disorder?

1. ACystic Fibrosis
2. BSickle Cell Anaemia
3. CDowns Syndrome
4. DMarasmus

Zoonotic viruses are those that can be transmitted

1. Aonly in wild animals.
2. Bfrom plants to humans.
3. Cfrom animals to humans.
4. Donly in zoo animals

Given the molecular weight of Glycine is 75, what would be the molecular weight of Gly-Gly dipeptide?

1. A150
2. B250
3. C132
4. D321

Identify the form of chromatography [Reverse Phase (RP) or Gel filtration (GF)] as shown in the chromatograms A and B below:

1. ARP(A) and GF(B)
2. BRP(B) and GF(A)
3. CRP(A) and RP(B)
4. DGF(A) and GF(B)

How much will 1 mole of glucose weigh (in grams) on the Earth (E) and on the Moon (M)?

1. A180(E) and 180(M)
2. B180(E) and 90(M)
3. C170(E) and 100(M)
4. D180(E) and 30(M)

Given three samples (a) L-Tyrosine (b) D-Tyrosine, (c) Equimolar mixture of L- and D-Tyrosine, which one of the following methods can help in the identification of the samples?

1. AUV absorbance
2. BIR spectroscopy
3. CNMR Spectroscopy
4. DOptical rotation

What are the number of moles in 100 ml water (density=1 g/ml) and in 100 ml heavy water (density=1.11 g/ml), respectively?

1. A5.55 and 5.55
2. B5.55 and 4.44
3. C4.44 and 5.55
4. D4.44 and 4.44

From the table given below, what is the overall protein yield?

1. A100%
2. B20.70%
3. C80%
4. D70%

Calculate the approximate concentration of a solution with molar extinction coefficient = 650 M^-1cm^-1, Path length = 1 cm and Absorbance =1.0.

1. A1.5 mM
2. B1.5 µM
3. C1.5 M
4. D1.5 nM

A 5200-bp long cloning vector contains two BamHI sites that are 450-bp apart. In a cloning experiment, a 1200-bp long gene “X” having two BamHI sites at 3’- and 5’-ends was PCR amplified and cloned after complete digestion of the vector with BamHI. What will be the size of the resultant plasmid containing the cloned gene X?

1. A5200-bp
2. B6400-bp
3. C5950-bp
4. D6850-bp

Match various nucleases in the List I to their respective functions in List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

1. AA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. DA-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

The difference between a cosmid and a plasmid is the presence of which one of the following additional features in a cosmid?

1. Aa λ phage DNA sequence that includes a cos site
2. Ban M13 phage DNA sequence that includes a cos site
3. Ca T4 phage DNA sequence that includes a cos site
4. Da T7 phage DNA sequence that includes a cos site

Nick translation is carried out by

1. ADNA polymerase I
2. BRNA Polymerase II
3. CRibosomes
4. DPolynucleotide kinase

A single cell that can divide and give rise to a completely differentiated organism is referred to as

1. AUnipotent
2. BPluripotent
3. CMultipotent
4. DTotipotent

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Mitochondria and chloroplast contain DNA, and are associated with ribosomes along with the enzymatic machinery for protein synthesis.

B. Mitochondria and chloroplast contain DNA but do not make protein.

C. Mitochondrial and chloroplast DNA sequence or ribosomes present are more related to bacteria and cyanobacteria than that of eukaryotes.

D. Mitochondria and chloroplast are distinct entities and can survive outside the host cell.

E. Neither mitochondria nor chloroplast contain all of the genes necessary to specify all the proteins present in these organelles.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. AA, C and E
2. BA, C and D
3. CB
4. DA and D

An organelle found in the cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells containing oxidative enzymes capable of energy generation is

1. AEndoplasmic reticulum
2. BLysosome
3. CPeroxisome
4. DGolgi body

Which one of the following statements is NOT true about the role of primase enzyme in DNA replication?

1. AIt does not need a primer to function.
2. BIt is a specialized polymerase that requires dNTPs.
3. CIt is an RNA polymerase using ribonucleoside triphosphates.
4. DIt synthesizes primer for both leading and lagging strands.

During evolution, Mitochondria may have been acquired from

1. ACommensal Bacteria
2. BArchaebacteria
3. CEndosymbiotic Bacteria
4. DParasymbiotic Bacteria

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Adjuvants?

1. AIt increases the immunogenicity of an antigen.
2. BExtends the bio availability of an antigen.
3. CCreates covalent modifications over the epitope.
4. DHelps in antigen presentation and chemokine response.

The molecular formula for glycine is C₂H₅O₂N. What would be the molecular formula for a linear oligomer made by linking ten glycine molecules together by condensation synthesis?

1. AC₂₀H₅₀O₂₀N₁₀
2. BC₂₀H₃₂O₁₁N₁₀
3. CC₂₀H₄₀O₁₀N₁₀
4. DC₂₀H₆₈O₂₉N₁₀

Based on the phosphoryl transfer potential, identify which one of the following cannot help in the generation of ATP from ADP?

1. AGlucose-1-phosphate
2. BCreatine phosphate
3. C1,3-bis-phosphoglycerate
4. DPhosphoenol pyruvate

Which amino acid(s) can be quantified from the acid hydrolysates of proteins?

1. AGln
2. BGln, Asn
3. CHis
4. DGln, Asn, Trp

The Messelson and Stahl experiment showed that DNA replication is

1. Adispersive
2. Bconservative
3. Csemi-conservative
4. Ddistributive

The primary enzyme responsible for direct reversal of UV-induced TT dimers are

1. Aglycosylases
2. Bphotolyases
3. Cexonucleases
4. Dendonucleases

Post-translational phosphorylation of proteins usually modify:

1. ASer and Phe
2. BThr and Val
3. CSer, Thr, and Tyr
4. DThr, Ala

Aqueous-organic solvents will have:

1. Alower ionizing capacity than pure water
2. Bhigher dielectric constant than pure water
3. Cmore ionizing capacity than pure water
4. Dsame dielectric constant as pure water

If the two disulfide bonds in a protein containing only four Cys residues are broken, and then allowed to reform, how many possible combinations of disulfide bonds are possible?

1. A3
2. B2
3. C4
4. D6

Phenyl isothiocyanate efficiently reacts with amino groups of proteins

1. Aunder highly acidic conditions
2. Bbetween pH 2 and pH 4
3. Cin the presence of anhydrous HCl gas
4. Dunder alkaline conditions

Which class of neurotransmitters would be most affected by a toxin that disrupts microtubules within neurons?

1. AAmino acid transmitters
2. BCatecholamine transmitters
3. CMembrane-soluble transmitters
4. DPeptide transmitters

Which of these is a disease of the myelin sheath?

1. APolio
2. BLeprosy
3. CMultiple sclerosis
4. DAlzheimer

Which of these techniques cannot differentiate between identical twins?

1. AWhole genome sequencing
2. BHigh resolution melt curve analysis
3. CFingerprint comparison
4. DDNA fingerprinting

Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma membrane?

1. APhospholipids
2. BHistones
3. CIntegral proteins
4. DCholesterol

A solid which is not transparent to visible light and whose conductivity increases with temperature is formed by:

1. Acovalent bonding
2. Bvan der Waal’s bonding
3. Cco-ordinate bonding
4. Dionic bonding

In Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM), a beam of electrons interact with the specimen to form the image as

1. AReflection
2. BShadow
3. CDiffraction
4. DScattering

The concentration of ligand is equal to K_d, when the fraction of the ligand bound to the protein is

1. A1
2. B1/4
3. C1/2
4. D1/8

The specific cleavage at Phe, Tyr and Trp amino acids is catalyzed by

1. Achymotrypsin
2. Btrypsin
3. Ccyanogen bromide
4. Dacetylcholinesterase

D-Alanine and L-Alanine are technically known as

1. Aanomers
2. Benantiomers
3. Cepimers
4. Dpolymer

In the lac operon, promoter and operator refer to

1. Abinding sites for repressor and RNA polymerase
2. Bbinding sites for RNA polymerase and repressor
3. Cbinding sites for repressor and corepressor
4. Dtwo binding sites for RNA polymerase

The bacterial mRNA binds to ribosomes through the

1. AShine-Dalgarno sequence
2. BKozak sequence
3. CTATA box
4. Dnon-specific sequence

EcoR1 enzyme recognizes the sequence GAATTC. A stretch of linear DNA with six sites will give rise to

1. A8 fragments
2. B7 fragments
3. C6 fragments
4. D5 fragments

Which one of the following activities is associated with Reverse transcriptase enzyme?

1. ADNA dependent DNA polymerase
2. BDNA dependent RNA polymerase
3. CRNA dependent DNA polymerase
4. DRNA dependent RNA polymerase

What is the minimum number of beta-strands that can be twisted and packed to form a beta-barrel structure?

1. A4
2. B6
3. C8
4. D10

In sickle-cell anemia, the negatively charged glutamic acid residue is replaced by which one of the following neutral amino acids?

1. Aglycine
2. Bvaline
3. Calanine
4. Dleucine

At what level of structure do Myoglobin and Hemoglobin differ the most with respect to their function?

1. APrimary structure
2. BTertiary Structure
3. CQuaternary Structure
4. DSecondary Structure

Hemoglobin’s p50 value is about ______ as great as myoglobin’s p50 value.

1. Atwice
2. Bhalf
3. Cten times
4. Dtwenty times

α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are

1. Astereoisomers
2. Benantiomers
3. Cepimers
4. Danomers

The major storage form of lipids is:

1. Asphingolipid
2. Bglycolipid
3. Ccholesterol
4. Dtriacylglycerol

The dihedral angles φ, ψ are referred to as

1. AEdman angles
2. BRamachandran angles
3. CPauling angles
4. DWatson angles

The molarity of pure water is

1. A1
2. B18
3. C55.55
4. D54

An oxidizing agent is defined as a

1. Aelectron donor
2. Belectron acceptor
3. Coxygen acceptor
4. Doxygen donor

Emulsifier is an agent which

1. Aaccelerates the dispersion
2. Bhomogenizes the emulsion
3. Cstabilizes the emulsion
4. Daids the flocculation of emulsion

The metal atom present in Vitamin B12 is

1. ACobalt
2. BMercury
3. CIron
4. DNickel

Fleming’s “left hand rule” is associated with the effect of

1. Aelectric field on current
2. Bmagnetic field on magnet
3. Celectric field on magnet
4. Dmagnetic field on current

Match the components of List I with those of List II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. AA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
2. BA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. CA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Which of the following groups consists of analogous organs?

1. ANephridia, Malpighian tubules, Keber’s organ
2. BCtenidia, Taenidia, Comb plates
3. CFlame cells, Oxyntic cells, Peptic cells
4. DAmphids, Statocyst, Halteres

The restriction endonuclease which cleaves the given sequence at the indicated site is

(5’)G↓GATCC(3’)

      CCTAG↑G

1. AEcoRI
2. BBamHI
3. CPvuII
4. DPstI

Choose the correct statement about kelps.

1. AIt is fresh water algae containing starch as stored food.
2. BIt attains red colour due to the presence of phycoerythrin.
3. CIt is a marine weed possessing fucoxanthin and carotenoids.
4. DThe cell wall of kelp contains algin and pectin

The term used to describe genes arranged in same order on chromosomes of different species is

1. AHomology
2. BSimilarity
3. CPhylogeny
4. DSynteny

Aroma in rice is due to which of the following compounds?

1. AAcetylcholine
2. B2-acetyl-1-pyrroline
3. C2-ethyl pyrroline
4. D4-benzyl pyrroline

Which one of the following techniques can be used to overcome pre-fertilization barrier between two plant species?

1. AEmbryo rescue
2. BProtoplast fusion
3. COvary culture
4. DEmbryo implantation

A man with AB-blood group marries a woman with a blood group O. What is the probability of having O blood group among the offspring?

1. A1 out of 4
2. B2 out of 4
3. C3 out of 4
4. DNo offspring will have O blood group

Which of the following subcellular structures are NOT present inside the nucleus?

A. Nucleolus

B. Golgi Body

C. Paraspeckles

D. Mitochondria

E. Endoplasmic reticulum

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. AA, C and E
2. BB, D and E
3. CA and C
4. DB and D

An unknown solution shows distinct peaks at 260 and 280 nm in a UV spectrophotometric analysis. The solution may contain

1. AOnly proteins.
2. BProteins, DNA and RNA.
3. CDNA and RNA.
4. DDNA only.

A promoter is a

1. ASequence on the DNA recognised by RNA Polymerase to initiate transcription.
2. BSequence on the RNA where ribosomes bind to initiate translation.
3. CSequence at the 3’-end for the DNA transcription termination.
4. DSequence on an RNA for protein binding.

Match the enzymes in the List I to their respective functions in the List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options below.

1. AA-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. BA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4. DA-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

A riboswitch is

1. Aa RNA molecule acting as an enzyme.
2. Ba structured regulatory mRNA segment that binds a small molecule.
3. Ca non-coding RNA that regulates gene expression.
4. Da RNA molecule that can change its function under new environment

One of the limitations of Y-chromosome DNA profiling is that

1. Agenetic variability on Y-chromosome is much more than that on autosomes.
2. Bit cannot differentiate between DNA from father, son and male siblings.
3. CY-chromosome has high recombination frequency.
4. Dit is difficult to PCR amplify Y-chromosome STRs.

Determine the sequence of genes on a chromosome based on the recombination frequencies given below.

M – N = 10 map units; M – O = 26 map units; M – P = 20 map units; N – O = 16 map units; N – P = 38 map units

1. AM-N-O-P
2. BP-M-N-O
3. CO-M-P-N
4. DN-P-O-M

Evolution of life forms had occurred due to use and disuse of organs. This theory was postulated by:

1. AJean-Baptiste Lamarck
2. BHugo de Vries
3. CCharles Darwin
4. DAlfred Wallace

Which of the following feature is true about ALL twenty genetically coded amino acids?

1. AThey are optically active
2. BThey contain a methylene group in their side chain
3. CThey contain Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen, and Nitrogen
4. DThey are basic in nature

A DNA sequence has two ends, 5’ and 3’. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the nature of the ends?

1. AThe 5’ end has a hydroxyl group.
2. BThe 5’ end has a phosphate group.
3. CThe 3’ end has a phosphate group.
4. DAny group can be present at any end.

Telomerase enzyme is a

1. ADNA dependent DNA polymerase
2. BDNA dependent RNA polymerase
3. CRNA dependent RNA polymerase
4. DReverse transcriptase

A log-log graph is plotted of total surface area of organisms versus their body weight. The best fit line will have a slope of

1. A1/2
2. B2/3
3. C3/4
4. D1

In an ideal Continuous Stirred Tank Reactor (CSTR) at steady state

1. AAll particles have equal residence time.
2. BMaximum number of particles have residence time equal to average residence time.
3. CMaximum number of particles have residence time close to zero.
4. DMaximum number of particles have residence time close to infinity.

Cooling water enters the cooling coil of a fermenter at 7 °C and leaves at 27 °C because it picks up the heat generated due to microbial growth. The culture temperature is 37°C. The average temperature difference which is used to calculate the rate of heat transfer is:

1. AArithmetic mean of 10 and 30
2. BGeometric mean of 10 and 30
3. CLogarithmic mean of 10 and 30
4. DHarmonic mean of 10 and 30

Given a constant Power number, the power consumption of an agitator having geometric similarity but twice the diameter of a smaller agitator will consume ___________ power at the same RPM as the smaller agitator.

1. A4 times.
2. B8 times.
3. C16 times.
4. D32 times.

In a batch experiment with cells following Monod growth kinetics, the initial substrate concentration is doubled from S_O to 2S_O and it is observed that the initial doubling time in the log phase hardly changes. This tells us that

1. AS_O >> K_s
2. BS_O = K_s (approximately)
3. CS_O << K_s
4. DThe growth in substrate is inhibited.

Which one of the following products is obtained by a trans-esterification step starting from sugarcane bagasse?

1. AGlycerol
2. BTrans-fat
3. CAlcohols
4. DBiodiesel

Which of the following is true for single cell protein?

1. AAlgae cannot be used in single cell protein
2. BIt is produced through fermentation
3. CIt does not contain carbohydrates and vitamins
4. DIts utilization increases environmental pollution

Select the INCORRECT statement from the following options.

1. ABiodegradable polymers are not suitable candidates in the recycling of commingled plastics.
2. BBiodegradable polymers are more expensive than ordinary plastics.
3. CBiodegradable polymers are an attractive option for addressing the solid waste and marine pollution.
4. DPolylactic acid cannot be used to make biodegradable plastic products.

The Cartagena Protocol regulates trade in

1. AEndangered species of plants and animals
2. BGenetically modified organisms
3. CElite varieties of crops
4. DVaccines

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Biodiversity of the prokaryotes cannot be quantified precisely.

Reason (R): Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for the identification and characterisation of all microbes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. BBoth A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. CA is correct, but R is not correct.
4. DA is not correct, but R is correct.