GAT-B 2022 Question Paper with Answer Key

The magnetic susceptibility is negative for:

1. Aparamagnetic materials.
2. Bferromagnetic materials.
3. Csuperconducting materials.
4. Ddiamagnetic materials.

What is the focal length (f) of a combination of lenses (convex and concave) as given below?

1. A30 cm
2. B20 cm
3. C10 cm
4. D60 cm

What is the net capacitance of the circuit given below?

1. A8.6 μF
2. B4.6 μF
3. C6.6 μF
4. D3.0 μF

Which one of the following properties is primarily responsible for spreading of oil uniformly on water?

1. AViscosity
2. BPartition coefficient
3. CDipole moment
4. DSurface tension

What will happen when the pressure is doubled in an isothermal process for a closed system containing a fixed amount of an ideal gas?

1. AVolume will double
2. BVolume will halve
3. CTemperature will increase slightly
4. DTemperature will decrease slightly

Which one of the following describes the relation between the acceleration of a body in space and the distance (r) of the body from the center of the earth?

1. A1/r
2. B1/r³
3. C1/r²
4. D√r

Which one of the following force does not act on a cyclist when he/ she bends on a horizontal turn?

1. AWeight (Mg)
2. BCentrifugal force (Mv²/r)
3. CFriction (f)
4. DTorque (τ)

Energy of a photon of wavelength 410 nm is equal to the band gap between valence and conduction band of a semi-conductor. What is the minimum energy required to create an electron-hole pair? (Planck’s constant (h) = 4.1×10⁻¹⁵ eV.s) (velocity of light = 3×10⁸ m/s)

1. A0.03 eV
2. B0.3 eV
3. C3.0 eV
4. D30.0 eV

Which one of the following is NOT due to total internal reflection?

1. ABrilliance of a diamond.
2. BWorking of an optical fibre.
3. CMirage on a hot summer day.
4. DDifference between apparent and real depth of a water body.

The limit of resolution of a light microscope is determined by:

1. Awavelength of light
2. Bmaterial of the lens
3. Cpolarization of light
4. Dintensity of light

Which one of the following is NOT a property of a LASER?

1. AIt is monochromatic.
2. BIt is coherent.
3. CIt is directional.
4. DIt exhibits spontaneous emission.

Point charges, +q each is placed at the corners of a triangle, square and regular pentagon. If the sides of the triangle, square and pentagon are a each, the electric field at the center will be:

1. Azero in all three cases
2. Bmaximum at the center of the pentagon
3. Cminimum at the center of the triangle
4. Dzero for square and positive for triangle and pentagon

Which one of the following attributes of an electromagnetic wave remains constant when it enters from air to water?

1. AWavelength
2. BVelocity
3. CFrequency
4. DColour

In uniform circular motion, which one of the following properties changes with time?

1. AMomentum
2. BSpeed
3. CMass
4. DKinetic Energy

Moving electron (velocity v) produces a magnetic field B such that:

1. AB is perpendicular to v.
2. BB is parallel to v.
3. CAngle between B and v is 45 degrees.
4. DB is opposite in direction to v.

The correct order of increasing acidic behavior of the following compounds is

1. AA>B>C
2. BC>B>A
3. CA>C>B
4. DB>C>A

Starting with three different amino acids, how many different tripeptides can be made, assuming that each amino acid can be used more than once?

1. A3
2. B6
3. C9
4. D27

The rate of a reaction, 2 A + B → Products, is given by the rate equation

Rate = k [A]² [B]

The value of the rate constant can be increased by:

1. Aincreasing the concentration of A alone.
2. Bincreasing the concentration of B alone.
3. Cincreasing the concentrations of A and B simultaneously.
4. Dincreasing the temperature.

What is the molarity of pure acetic acid? Assume density of acetic acid = 1 g/ml.

1. A12.7
2. B16.7
3. C20.7
4. D55.5

Which one of the following represents the correct electronic orbital configuration of Phosphorus (+3) ion (P³⁺)?

1. A1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s²
2. B1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹
3. C1s² 2s² 2p⁴ 3s²
4. D1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s¹

The boiling points of four liquids are shown below:

Which liquid has the highest vapor pressure at 25°C?

1. AAcetone
2. BEthanol
3. CDiethyl ether
4. DWater

What is the approximate vapor pressure of an isopropanol solution containing 9.2 g of a non volatile solute, glycerol (C₃H₈O₃) and 60 g of isopropanol (C₃H₈O) at 82°C? Given vapor pressure of isopropanol at 82°C is 100 kPa.

1. A81 kPa
2. B91 kPa
3. C101 kPa
4. D111 kPa

An organic compound contains 69.77% C, 11.63% H and 18.6% O. Its molecular formula is same as its empirical formula. The number of carbon atoms present per molecule would be:

1. A4
2. B5
3. C6
4. D7

The ratio of the velocity of the hydrogen molecule to that of the oxygen molecule under identical conditions is:

1. A1:1
2. B1:2
3. C1:4
4. D1:16

In the following reaction

P₄(g) + 6 Cl₂ (g) = 4 PCl₃ (g)

equilibrium is established by adding equal moles of P₄(g) and Cl₂(g); therefore, at equilibrium:

1. A[Cl₂] > [PCl₃]
2. B[Cl₂] < [P₄]
3. C[PCl₃] > [P₄]
4. D[P₄] = [PCl₃]

Choose the correct order of increasing acidity for the following compounds:

A. Benzoic acid

B. 4-Methoxybenzoic acid

C. 4-Nitrobenzoic acid

1. AA>B>C
2. BB>C>A
3. CC>B>A
4. DA>C>B

The alkaline nature of amines is due to the:

1. Asmall size of nitrogen.
2. Bhigher stability of nitrogen molecule at room temperature.
3. Cpresence of unshared pair of electrons on nitrogen.
4. Dpyramidal geometry of nitrogen in amines.

The following structure represents

1. AAn oxime
2. BA hydrazone
3. CAn imine
4. DA Schiff’s base

What is the half-life of a zero order reaction that takes 25 minutes for 80% completion?

1. A150.25 seconds
2. B937.50 seconds
3. C950.50 seconds
4. D156.25 seconds

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The boiling point of p-nitrophenol is higher than the o-nitrophenol.

Statement II: Alcohols are less acidic than the Phenols.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

In a class of 35 students, 24 like to play cricket and 16 like to play football. Also, each student likes to play at least one of the two games. How many students like to play both cricket and football?

1. A11
2. B5
3. C8
4. D13

If the price of the sugar is raised by 25%, find by how much percent a homemaker should reduce the consumption of sugar so as not to increase his/her expenditure?

1. A10%
2. B12%
3. C20%
4. D15%

How many numbers between 100 and 999 can be formed with the digits 1, 4, 7, 8, and 9 if the digits are not repeated?

1. A20
2. B60
3. C12
4. D120

What is the chance that a leap year, selected at random, will NOT have 53 Sundays as well as 53 Mondays?

1. A1/7
2. B2/7
3. C5/7
4. D0

Three taps A, B, and C together can fill an empty cistern in 10 minutes, the tap A alone can fill it in 20 minutes and the tap B alone in 40 minutes. How long will the tap C alone take to fill it?

1. A40 minutes
2. B24 minutes
3. C32 minutes
4. D16 minutes

What is the sum of the first 10 terms of the sequence 1,2,4,8,16, ……..?

1. A1024
2. B1023
3. C1017
4. D1026

The average of the first five multiples of 9 is:

1. A20
2. B27
3. C28
4. D30

The straight line 2x+3y+4=0 touches the x-axis at:

1. A-2.0
2. B+2.0
3. C-1.0
4. D+1.0

If A is the set of even natural numbers less than 8 and B is the set of prime numbers less than 7, then the number of relations from A to B is

1. A9
2. B9²
3. C2⁹
4. D2³

A box contains 5 pink, 3 green, and 2 yellow balls. Three balls are picked up randomly. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is green?

1. A3/16
2. B7/24
3. C5/13
4. D4/23

In a class of 60 students comprising girls and boys, 30% are boys. On a given day 10% of the class is absent and all the absentees are boys. What is the percentage of girls in this class on that given day?

1. A66.66
2. B77.77
3. C88.88
4. D100

Find the area of the triangle with vertices A(5,4), B(-2,4) and C(2,14).

1. A34 sq. units
2. B35 sq. units
3. C36 sq. units
4. D32 sq. units

Two trains running in opposite directions pass by a man standing on the platform in 20 seconds and 10 seconds respectively and they completely cross each other in 15 seconds. The ratio of their speeds is:

1. A1 : 3
2. B1 : 2
3. C1 : 1.5
4. D1 : 1

When 4 fair coins are tossed together what is the probability of getting at least 3 heads?

1. A1/4
2. B3/4
3. C5/16
4. D3/8

Find the modal age from the given data:

1. A10
2. B12
3. C15
4. D20

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Hematopoietic stem cells are considered multipotent precursors.

Reason R: They have the ability to differentiate into different types of blood cells.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. CA is correct but R is not correct
4. DA is not correct but R is correct

Glycosidic linkages are the bonds between:

1. Asugars
2. Bnucleotides
3. Camino acids
4. Dlipids

What is the bond that can form between two cysteines in a protein?

1. AIonic bond
2. BHydrogen bond
3. CDisulfide bond
4. DAmide bond

Cystic fibrosis is caused due to:

1. Amutation in a gene encoding G protein
2. Bdeficiency of adenyl cyclase
3. Cmutation in a gene encoding an ABC transporter
4. Dover activation of the Ca++ ATPase pump

The primary enzyme responsible for the rapid and accurate replication of the genome in E. coli is:

1. ADNA Pol V
2. BDNA Pol II
3. CDNA Pol III
4. DDNA Pol IV

Histones are tightly bound to DNA because:

1. Ahistones are positively charged proteins.
2. Bhistones are negatively charged proteins.
3. Chistones get acetylated by the action of acyltransferases.
4. Dhistones are highly hydrophobic in nature.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: A single gene can affect multiple phenotypic expressions.

Statement II: In a polygenic trait, multiple genes contribute to a phenotypic expression.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth I and II are correct
2. BBoth I and II are incorrect
3. CI is correct but II is incorrect
4. DI is incorrect but II is correct

Interferons secreted by virus-infected cells induce:

1. Aantiviral response
2. Bpro-viral response
3. Capoptosis
4. Dcell proliferation

Lung cancer can be detected at an early stage by:

1. Abone marrow test
2. Bblood test
3. CMRI scans
4. DGene sequencing

Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant disorder?

1. ASickle cell anaemia
2. BCystic fibrosis
3. CTay-Sachs disease
4. DHuntington’s disease

Which one of the following statements correctly describes type IIP restriction enzymes?

A. They cut nucleotides only from the ends of the DNA.

B. They act on only palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA.

C. They recognize only GC rich sequences.

D. They recognize only AT rich sequences.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA and B Only
2. BB Only
3. CA, B and C Only
4. DA, B and D Only

Match items in List I with items in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. AA – II, B – IV, C – III, D – I
2. BA – I, B – IV, C – III, D – II
3. CA – I, B – III, C – IV, D – II
4. DA – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Activation energy is the difference between the energy level of substrate and its transition state during the reaction.

Statement II: Enzymes increase the activation energy enhancing the rate of reaction.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Inhibition of succinate dehydrogenase by malonate represents competitive inhibition.

Reason R: Malonate and succinate bind at different sites of the enzyme.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3. CA is correct but R is not correct
4. DA is not correct but R is correct

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Bt toxin does not kill Bacillus thuringiensis.

Reason R: The Bt toxin gets activated due to the alkaline pH of the insect gut.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. CA is correct but R is not correct
4. DA is not correct but R is correct

Which one of the following techniques can be used to determine the copy number of a gene?

1. AChromatin Immunoprecipitation
2. BNorthern Blotting
3. CELISA
4. DReal time PCR

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In plants, the genes for smaller subunit of ribulose-1, 5-bisphosphate carboxylase/ oxygenase (Rubisco) enzyme is present in the plastid genome.

Statement II: The genes for larger subunit of Rubisco enzyme is present in the nuclear genome.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Which enzyme catalyzes strand separation at the replication fork?

1. AReplication protein A
2. BDNA helicase
3. CDNA topoisomerase
4. DDNA polymerase

Which one of the following small RNAs in plants DO NOT regulate gene expression by cleavage of mRNAs?

1. AMicroRNAs (miRNAs)
2. BShort interfering RNA (siRNA)
3. CHeterochromatin siRNAs (hcsiRNAs)
4. DTrans-acting siRNAs (tasiRNAs)

Which is a type of multigenic interaction?

1. ALethal allele
2. BCo-dominance
3. CEpistasis
4. DABO genotype

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Bisexual flowers promote self-pollination.

Statement II: Self-incompatibility and male-sterility prevent self-pollination.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Which is the class of Nitrogen containing plant secondary metabolites?

1. ATerpenoids
2. BFlavonoids
3. CAlkaloids
4. DBrassinosteroids

In a random mating population, the frequency of allele A1 and A2 in the gene pool is 0.8 and 0.2, respectively. In a population of 200 plants, how many will have the genotype A1A2?

1. A8
2. B128
3. C64
4. D32

During protoplast fusion, the product has the nucleus of one of the parents in which the chromosome elimination took place in subsequent cell division and the cytoplasm was contributed by both the parents. Such a product will be called:

1. ASymmetric hybrid
2. BAsymmetric hybrid
3. CCybrid
4. DHomokaryons

How many clones must you get to make a representative genomic library of a plant with a genome of a billion base pairs (bp), provided your vector carrying capacity is 10 kbp. Remember to allow a redundancy of at least one order of magnitude.

1. AThousand
2. BMillion
3. CLakh
4. DHundred

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Virulence trait of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is borne on genomic DNA.

Statement II: The technique used to introduce genes in dicot is Ti-plasmid infection.

Choose the correct answer:

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

Why is golden rice pale yellow in color?

1. AIt is rich in chlorophyll a.
2. BIt is rich in beta–carotene.
3. CIt is rich in chlorophyll b.
4. DIt is rich in phycobilins.

Simple sequence repeats (SSRs) are best utilized for:

1. APhenotyping
2. BGenotyping
3. CKaryotyping
4. DGene Silencing

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The fragments of DNA generated after cleavage with a restriction enzyme have a phosphate group on their 3’ ends and a –OH group on their 5’ ends.

Statement II: Cohesive ends generated by restriction digestion reanneal with complementary DNA fragment.

Choose the correct answer:

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: After immobilization, plant cells are subjected to stress to induce secondary metabolite production.

Statement II: Cells derived from different explants in culture always produce the same set of secondary metabolites.

Choose the correct answer:

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: A linear DNA molecule containing three recognition sites for a restriction enzyme will generate multiple DNA fragments on partial digestion.

Reason R: Partial digestion by restriction enzymes leads to a heterogeneous population of DNA fragments.

Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. CA is correct but R is not correct.
4. DA is not correct but R is correct.

Given below are few statements related to plant tissue culture:

A. Regeneration frequencies of different types of explants derived from the same plant would always be identical.

B. A higher auxin: cytokinin ratio would induce production of roots under culture conditions.

C. Embryos can be obtained from somatic tissues of plants under in vitro culture conditions.

D. Since plants can photosynthesize, addition of a carbon source in tissue culture media is not advisable.

Choose the correct statements:

1. AA and C Only
2. BB and D Only
3. CB and C Only
4. DA and D Only

Match items List I with items in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. AA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-III
2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. DA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Match items in List I with items in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. AA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. BA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. DA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Given below are two statements about hnRNA processing:

Statement I: Capping occurs by addition of methyl adenosine triphosphate to the 5′ end.

Statement II: During tailing, about 200-300 adenylate residues are added to its 3′ end.

Choose the correct answer:

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true.
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false.
3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false.
4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true.

The vector which is most commonly used in crop improvement is:

1. ABacterial Artificial Chromosome (BAC)
2. BAgrobacterium
3. CT4 phage
4. DCosmid

Lac repressor of E. coli contains _________ DNA binding motifs.

1. AHelix turn helix
2. BHelix loop helix
3. CLeucine zipper
4. DZinc finger

Knockout mice are usually created by:

1. Achemically mutagenizing a mouse and selecting for mutant offspring.
2. Bcreating a chimera by fusing cells from two different cell lines.
3. Cinfecting the mouse with a retrovirus.
4. Dtransfecting embryonic stem cells with an inactivated gene.

RNAi or post-transcriptional gene silencing is a conserved biological response to the presence of:

1. AssDNA
2. BdsDNA
3. CssRNA
4. DdsRNA

Which protein is required to seal a nick during Okazaki fragment maturation?

1. ADNA Ligase
2. BDNA helicase
3. CDNA topoisomerase
4. DDNA polymerase

Self splicing introns are an example of:

1. ASpliceosomes
2. BRibozymes
3. CMitrons
4. DInteins

Which of the following can be a restriction site for type II restriction enzyme?

1. A5’ AAGG 3’
   3’ TTCC 5’
2. B3’ AGTC 5’
   5’ TCAG 3’
3. C5’ GGCC 3’
   3’ CCGG 5’
4. D5’ ACCA 3’
   3’ TGGT 5’

A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. During protein synthesis:

1. Anone of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
2. Blysine will partially replace phenylalanine at certain positions.
3. Cthe cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.
4. Dlysine will replace phenylalanine at all amino acids positions.

A double-stranded genomic DNA has 40% (A+T) content. What is the average size (base pairs) of the fragments generated by digestion with the restriction enzyme HaeIII (GGCC)?

1. A81
2. B123
3. C256
4. D4096

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Attenuation of the trp operon is possible in bacteria

Reason R: Transcription and translation are coupled.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. CA is true but R is false
4. DA is false but R is true

Which is the correct order of progressively higher levels of chromatin organization?

A. Nucleosome

B. 30 nm chromatin fibre

C. Looped domain

Choose the correct answer:

1. AA → B → C
2. BC → B → A
3. CC → A → B
4. DA → C → B

The following diagram represents a restriction enzyme site:

Statement I: After digestion cohesive ends will be formed.

Statement II: These cohesive ends will have phosphate groups at 3` and 5` ends.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

The following figure shows agarose gel electrophoresis of linear DNA, after digestion with BamHI in lane C and EcoRI in lane D. The uncut DNA is shown in lane B.

Statement I: This DNA has two restriction sites for BamHI and one restriction site for EcoRI.

Statement II: Double digestion with BamHI and EcoRI will yield 5 fragments.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false
4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

During replication, DNA polymerases distinguish between ribonucleoside and deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (rNTPs and dNTPs) while synthesizing new DNA strand. Although rNTPs are present at approximately 10-fold higher concentration in the cell, they are incorporated at a rate that is more than 1000-fold lower than dNTPs. This is because:

1. ADNA polymerases selectively cleave rNTPs.
2. BrNTPs are cyclized by DNA polymerase.
3. CSteric exclusion of rNTPs from the DNA polymerase active site.
4. DdNTPs are more stable than rNTPs.

Regulation of lac operon is negative as:

1. Aoperon is expressed at low level to allow lactose entry.
2. Blactose binds with the inducer to activate the operon.
3. Cexpression of operon is blocked by an active repressor.
4. Dlactose needs a transporter to enter the cell.

Recombinants with insertional inactivation of β-galactosidase are identified by their inability to:

1. Agrow on the galactose-rich medium
2. Bgrow on lactose rich medium
3. Cdevelop resistance to antibiotics
4. Dproduce color in the presence of a chromogenic substrate

The level of expression of recombinant protein can be gauged by

1. Anumber of transformants obtained.
2. Bnutrient utilization rate.
3. Cthe level of resistance to antibiotic.
4. DWestern blotting.

The percentage of sequence identity for the following aligned sequence is:

VKSFLWTQAL
VPSFRWTQSL

1. A10%
2. B80%
3. C30%
4. D70%

At the time of completion of protein synthesis, the sequence in which they leave the ribosome is:

1. APolypeptide chain, m-RNA, t-RNA
2. Bt-RNA, m-RNA, Polypeptide chain
3. CPolypeptide chain, t-RNA, m-RNA
4. Dm-RNA, Polypeptide chain, t-RNA

Subtractive hybridization is useful to:

1. Aeliminates incomplete cDNA from a gene library.
2. Bcreate expression libraries based on genes that are currently being expressed.
3. Cidentify and construct new probes for southern hybridization.
4. Didentify sets of genes that are only expressed under certain conditions.

NK cells are immunologically significant as they recognize and kill:

1. Aintracellular bacteria reservoirs.
2. Bcells with upregulated MHC-I molecules.
3. Ccells with downregulated MHC-I molecules.
4. Dcells with self-marker on their surface.

The primary function of the class I and class II MHC molecules is:

1. Abinding peptide antigens for recognition by antigen-specific receptors on T-cells.
2. Bmediation of T-independent B-cell responses.
3. Chelping in endocytosis of antigens by phagocytic cells.
4. Daid opsonization of foreign particle.

What is the advantage of using the neo gene to disrupt the function of a gene in knockout mice?

1. AThe neo gene produces an antibiotic that kills unwanted cells.
2. BThe neo gene is the right size for disabling other genes.
3. CThe neo gene provides a selectable marker.
4. DThe neo gene produces a repressor that inhibits transcription of the target gene.

The selection of cells whose T-cell receptors respond to self-MHC is known as:

1. ANegative selection
2. BMHC restriction
3. CAffinity maturation
4. DLineage commitment

Match items in List I with items in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
2. BA-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Which one of the following are Professional Antigen Presenting Cells?

1. AFibroblasts
2. BNeutrophils
3. CDendritic cells
4. DEpithelial cells

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Polyclonal antibodies bind to the same antigen but recognize different epitopes.

Reason R: Polyclonal antibodies are produced by different B cell clones in the body.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. CA is correct but R is not correct
4. DA is not correct but R is correct

Identify the statement that is NOT applicable to enzyme catalyzed reaction.

1. AThe reaction proceeds with the conversion of the substrate to a higher energy transition state.
2. BEnzymes alter the equilibrium constant of the reaction.
3. CEnzymes decrease the energy of activation required for the reaction.
4. DSome enzymes involve multiple steps of electron transfer.

Match items in List I with items in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. BA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. CA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Which of the following amino acids are both glucogenic and ketogenic?

A. Isoleucine

B. Serine

C. Tryptophan

D. Proline

E. Phenylalanine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA, B and C only
2. BA, C and E only
3. CC and E only
4. DB and D only

A peptide containing only aromatic amino acids (tryptophan, phenylalanine, and tyrosine) has a molecular weight of 11,000. The likely number of amino acid residues in the peptide is:

1. A60
2. B100
3. C125
4. D150

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The major source of energy for the basic functioning of the cell is derived from oxidative metabolism.

Reason R: Mitochondria oxidize substrates to CO₂, transferring the high energy electron from molecular oxygen to glucose.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. BBoth A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. CA is true but R is false
4. DA is false but R is true

The melting point of fatty acids in plant derived oils is influenced by:

1. Alength and degree of unsaturation of hydrocarbon chain
2. Bdegree of unsaturation only
3. Clength of hydrocarbon chain only
4. DNumber of side and branch chains present

Which of the following is NOT a mucopolysaccharide?

1. AChondroitin
2. BInulin
3. CHyaluronic acid
4. DHeparin

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Fatty acid synthase is an example of a tetramer of a multienzyme polypeptide.

Statement II: Each polypeptide harbors seven independent enzymatic functions.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are true
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are false
3. CStatement I is true but Statement II is false 2
4. DStatement I is false but Statement II is true

In Michaelis-Menten kinetics what value of [S], as a fraction of K_m, is required to obtain a velocity equal to 80% V_max?

1. A2 K_m
2. B4 K_m
3. C0.8 K_m
4. DK_m

Major limitation of using NMR to determine protein structure is:

1. Aresolution is poor.
2. Bresolved structure is not reliable.
3. Cdifficult to interpret the data for larger proteins (>50 KDa).
4. Ddifficult to interpret the data for smaller proteins (<15 KDa).

Immobilization of enzymes:

A. increases the specificity of the enzyme in batch reaction

B. leads to an increase in the apparent K_m.

C. makes it unsuitable for its use in a continuous reactor system

D. decrease the operational cost of the industrial process

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. AB and D Only
2. BA and D Only
3. CA and C Only
4. DC and D Only

The hormone that activates the enzyme adenylate cyclase is:

1. AEpinephrine
2. BInsulin
3. CEstrogen
4. DProgesterone

The rate of sedimentation of a particle is dependent on the:

1. Adensity of the particle only.
2. Bsize of the particle only.
3. Cviscosity of the medium only.
4. Dsize and density of the particle along with the viscosity of the medium.

Resolution power of transmission electron microscope is of the sub nanometer level. This is because:

1. Athe focal length of the electron microscope is significantly larger.
2. Bthe contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal.
3. Celectron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light.
4. Dthe electron microscope has a much greater ratio of image size to real size.

Which of the following represents the correct sequence of MAP kinase signal transduction pathway?

A. Ras

B. Raf

C. ERK

D. Mek

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA→ B→C→D
2. BA→ B→D→C
3. CA→ C→B→D
4. DB→ A→C→D

Arrange the following in correct sequence of steps in erythrocytic cycle of malarial parasite.

A. Parasite feeds on the hemoglobin in the RBCs

B. Parasite forms a schizont by multiple fissions

C. The nucleus of the parasite moves on one side

D. The food vacuole of the parasite increases in size

E. The haemozoin granules are formed

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AB→C→E→D→A
2. BA→D→C→E→B
3. CC→A→E→B→D
4. DD→E→B→C→A

Which of the following describes cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?

A. Cdk is inactive, or “turned off”, in the presence of cyclin

B. Cdk is present throughout the cell cycle

C. Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA and B Only
2. BB Only
3. CB and C Only
4. DC Only

Once the cell passes the G1 checkpoint and enters S phase:

1. Athe cell cycle is completed bypassing the M phase.
2. Bthe cell cycle is completed bypassing the G2 checkpoint.
3. Ccompletion of cell cycle will depend on G2 checkpoint.
4. Dthe cell will next enter M phase bypassing the G2 checkpoint.

The probability of mutation in a base-pair per round of replication is 5 × 10⁻¹⁰ and the genome length of bacteria is 5 Mb. The number of bacterial cells required so that there is one mutation on an average per replication cycle is:

1. A1000
2. B10000
3. C100000
4. D1000000

The fractional conversion from an immobilized enzyme continuous stirred tank reactor under steady state operation increases with an increase in agitation speed. This behavior can be attributed to:

1. Areduced internal pore diffusion.
2. BReduced external film diffusion.
3. Cdecrease in energy of activation for the enzyme.
4. Denhanced enzyme activity due to mechanical shear.

In power law model for fluid rheology, if the value of the flow behavior index (n) is <1, then with increase in shear stress, the apparent viscosity:

1. Aremains unchanged.
2. Bincreases.
3. Cdecreases.
4. Dincreases initially followed by a decrease.

The growth pattern that you will obtain for a media containing two different carbon sources one of which is preferentially utilized will be a:

1. Adiauxic growth.
2. Bexponential growth.
3. Clinear growth.
4. Dlag phase followed by log phase growth.

Match the coefficients in List I with their corresponding downstream processing steps given in List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
2. BA-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. CA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
4. DA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

Match List I with List II- Match the industrial application of the following enzymes:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2. BA-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
3. CA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. DA-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

In animal cell culture, a CO₂ enriched atmosphere in the incubation chamber is used:

1. Afor supplying CO₂ for the metabolic reaction.
2. Bto control pH by generating carbonic acid.
3. Cto control pH by generating bicarbonate.
4. Dto aid photosynthetic reaction.

For a batch microbial process the specific rate of substrate utilization is 0.25 h⁻¹ and specific product formation rate is 0.20 h⁻¹. The yield of product based on substrate consumed will be:

1. A0.80
2. B1.25
3. C0.05
4. D0.45

Increasing the agitation rate in a reactor breaks larger bubbles into smaller bubbles. If gas hold-up does not change and the average bubble diameter reduces to half; then the gas-liquid interfacial area:

1. Areduces by 50%
2. Bremains unchanged
3. Cincreases by 100%
4. Dincreases by 300%

In Michaelis-Menten kinetics to increase the reaction velocity by 9 fold from 10% of V_max to 90% of V_max the substrate concentration has to increased by:

1. A3 fold
2. B9 fold
3. C27 fold
4. D81 fold

Acid Fast bacteria:

1. Ahave cell wall with mycolic acid
2. Bthrive well in acidic environment
3. Care fastidious bacteria
4. Dcause acid depletion in soil

Corona virus is a:

1. Apositive sense single stranded RNA virus
2. Bnegative sense single stranded RNA virus
3. Cdouble stranded RNA virus without segmented genome
4. Ddouble stranded RNA virus with segmented genome

Penicillin consists of a thiazolidine ring fused to a β-lactam ring to which a variable R group is attached. This antibiotic inhibits cell wall synthesis by inhibiting:

1. Aβ -lactamase
2. BPhosphodiesterase
3. CTransesterase
4. DGlycopeptide transpeptidase

Match items in List I with items in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. BA-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. CA-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. DA-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Which of the following mechanisms of antibiotic action is/are NOT correct ?

A. Tetracycline: Inihibits aminoacyl-tRNA binding to A-site.

B. Rifampicin: Blocks correct positioning of A-site aminoacyl-tRNA for peptidyl transfer reaction

C. Chloramphenicol: Inhibits EF-Tu function

D. Ciproflaxicin: Inhibits Topoisomerases

E. Puromycin: Causes premature chain termination during translation; mimics 3’ end of aminoacyl-tRNA in A-site and acts as acceptor.

1. AB only
2. BA, C and D only
3. CB and C only
4. DD and E only

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The recombination frequency of genes vary from 50% to 80%.

Statement II: Recombination can occur anywhere along the length of chromosome.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

1. ABoth statement I and statement II are correct
2. BBoth statement I and statement II are incorrect
3. CStatement I is correct but statement II is not correct
4. DStatement I is not correct but statement II is correct

Match items in List I with items in List II

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. AA – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
2. BA – IV, B – I, C – III, D – II
3. CA – IV, B – III, C – I, D – II
4. DA – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Sickle cell trait protects humans from malaria.

Statement II: Sickle cell trait can be transmitted even if both the parents are heterozygous for the β-globin gene.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

In which of the following genotypes of lac operon the enzyme synthesis would be constitutive?

A. I⁺O⁺Z⁺Y⁺ / I⁺O⁺Z⁺Y⁺

B. I⁺O^cZ⁺Y⁺ / I⁺O^cZ⁺Y⁺

C. I⁻O⁺Z⁺Y⁺ / I⁺O⁺Z⁺Y⁺

D. I⁻O⁺Z⁺Y⁺ / I⁻O⁺Z⁺Y⁺

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. AA and B Only
2. BB and C Only
3. CB and D Only
4. DC and D Only

Assume that height in a plant is controlled by three genes (A, B and C) and each additive allele contributes equally. The base height of plant is 20 cm and the maximum possible height is 38 cm. The height of a plant with genotype AAbbCc will be:

1. A32 cm
2. B29 cm
3. C19 cm
4. D25.4 cm

Based on this phylogenetic tree, which statement is NOT correct?

1. AThe salamander lineage is a basal taxon.
2. BSalamanders are a sister group to the group containing lizards, goats, and humans.
3. CSalamanders are as closely related to goats as to humans.
4. DLizards are more closely related to salamanders than to humans.

In the human ABO blood group system, the alleles A and B are dominant to O, what will be the number of different possible genotypes?

1. A4
2. B8
3. C6
4. D12

The stop codons lead to termination of translation because:

1. Athere are no tRNAs corresponding to stop codons.
2. Bthe corresponding tRNA do not have an amino acid.
3. Cthe corresponding tRNA cannot bind to ribosome binding site.
4. Dstop codon codes for pseudo amino acid.

In a family, if the father is affected by X- linked dominant trait and mother is normal, then

1. Asome of the daughters can be normal.
2. Ball the daughters will be affected.
3. Call the daughters and none of the sons will be affected.
4. Dall the sons and some of the daughters will be affected.

Which one the following is a protein prediction server based on artificial intelligence?

1. AM-fold
2. BAlpha-fold
3. CPDB
4. DSwiss-Model

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: BLAST compares protein as well as nucleotide sequences in order to identify areas of similarity.

Statement II: Genbank is a repository of data on the phenotypic results of gene knockouts in humans.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. ABoth Statement I and Statement II are correct
2. BBoth Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3. CStatement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. DStatement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

RNA Viruses are entirely dependent on the host for:

1. Areplication machinery
2. Btranscriptional machinery
3. CRNA capping machinery
4. Dprotein translation machinery

RNA virus generally replicates in:

1. ACytoplasm
2. BNucleus
3. CMitochondria
4. DLate endosomes

The following statement is NOT true for the receptor binding site of a virus.

1. ABinds specifically to a cellular receptor.
2. BCannot bind to neutralizing antibodies.
3. CInteracts with the cellular receptor leading to activation of endocytosis.
4. DIs composed of unique structural domains.

Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions involves the complement activation?

1. ABoth Type I and Type III hypersensitivity
2. BOnly Type I hypersensitivity
3. CBoth Type I and Type II hypersensitivity
4. DBoth Type II and Type III hypersensitivity

Which of the following phagocytic cells is NOT a tissue-specific macrophage cell?

1. AHistiocyte
2. BKupffer cell
3. CLangerhans cell
4. DDendritic cell

Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about myeloma cells used in the hybridoma technique for the production of monoclonal antibodies?

1. AThese are cancerous B cells
2. BThey can divide indefinitely in a culture
3. CTheir HGPRT gene is non-functional
4. DThey can produce antibodies

Which of the following is an inactivated vaccine?

1. ACovishield
2. BSputnik V
3. CCovaxin
4. DModerna mRNA-1273

A plant species nearing its extinction due to virus infection has been given for tissue culture and micropropagation. What should scientists choose from the following four explants for culturing?

1. AShoot apical meristem
2. BInternode
3. CLeaf disc
4. DRoot tip

The ‘Flavr Savr‘ tomato was the first genetically engineered crop product commercialized for human consumption. This transgenic tomato is known for:

1. Aincreased bioactive compounds.
2. Bfortified Fe and Zn contents.
3. Cenhanced shelf-life.
4. Dbigger and pulpier fruits.